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156-315.81 Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 ( 156-315.81.20 ) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

Options:

A.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

B.

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

C.

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

D.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

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Questions 5

Which of the following is NOT a VPN routing option available in a star community?

Options:

A.

To satellites through center only.

B.

To center, or through the center to other satellites, to Internet and other VPN targets.

C.

To center and to other satellites through center.

D.

To center only.

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Questions 6

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

2

B.

7

C.

6

D.

4

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Questions 7

You can access the ThreatCloud Repository from:

Options:

A.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Application Wiki

B.

Threat Prevention and Threat Tools

C.

Threat Wiki and Check Point Website

D.

R81.20 SmartConsole and Threat Prevention

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Questions 8

You need to change the number of firewall Instances used by CoreXL. How can you achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot required

B.

cpconfig; reboot required

C.

edit fwaffinity.conf; reboot not required

D.

cpconfig; reboot not required

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Questions 9

Which tool provides a list of trusted files to the administrator so they can specify to the Threat Prevention blade that these files do not need to be scanned or analyzed?

Options:

A.

ThreatWiki

B.

Whitelist Files

C.

AppWiki

D.

IPS Protections

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Questions 10

Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/conf.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/servers.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf

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Questions 11

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.20?

Options:

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

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Questions 12

When SecureXL is enabled, all packets should be accelerated, except packets that match the following conditions:

Options:

A.

All UDP packets

B.

All IPv6 Traffic

C.

All packets that match a rule whose source or destination is the Outside Corporate Network

D.

CIFS packets

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Questions 13

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_”cpview process ID”.cap”number of captures”?

Options:

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

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Questions 14

What SmartEvent component creates events?

Options:

A.

Consolidation Policy

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

SmartEvent Policy

D.

SmartEvent GUI

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Questions 15

On R81.20 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Options:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

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Questions 16

Which command shows actual allowed connections in state table?

Options:

A.

fw tab –t StateTable

B.

fw tab –t connections

C.

fw tab –t connection

D.

fw tab connections

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Questions 17

On what port does the CPM process run?

Options:

A.

TCP 857

B.

TCP 18192

C.

TCP 900

D.

TCP 19009

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Questions 18

What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?

Options:

A.

The Database revisions will not be synchronized between the management servers

B.

SmartConsole must be closed prior to synchronized changes in the objects database

C.

If you wanted to use Full Connectivity Upgrade, you must change the Implied Rules to allow FW1_cpredundant to pass before the Firewall Control Connections.

D.

For Management Server synchronization, only External Virtual Switches are supported. So, if you wanted to employ Virtual Routers instead, you have to reconsider your design.

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Questions 19

What are the types of Software Containers?

Options:

A.

Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security

B.

Three; Security Gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management

C.

Two; security management and endpoint security

D.

Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

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Questions 20

Fill in the blank. Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is ________ .

Options:

A.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

C.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

D.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

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Questions 21

Which is not a blade option when configuring SmartEvent?

Options:

A.

Correlation Unit

B.

SmartEvent Unit

C.

SmartEvent Server

D.

Log Server

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Questions 22

Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all the following except:

Options:

A.

Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

B.

Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions

C.

Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks

D.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution

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Questions 23

What is UserCheck?

Options:

A.

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

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Questions 24

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

Options:

A.

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.

SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not

C.

IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.

IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.

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Questions 25

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R81 management plug-ins?

Options:

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

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Questions 26

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

Options:

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

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Questions 27

How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

Options:

A.

2(OS) images

B.

images are chosen by administrator during installation

C.

as many as licensed for

D.

the newest image

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Questions 28

When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.

Options:

A.

SecureID

B.

SecurID

C.

Complexity

D.

TacAcs

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Questions 29

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

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Questions 30

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

Options:

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members.

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Questions 31

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

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Questions 32

fwssd is a child process of which of the following Check Point daemons?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

cpwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

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Questions 33

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server via which 2 processes?

Options:

A.

fwd via cpm

B.

fwm via fwd

C.

cpm via cpd

D.

fwd via cpd

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Questions 34

Which method below is NOT one of the ways to communicate using the Management API’s?

Options:

A.

Typing API commands using the “mgmt_cli” command

B.

Typing API commands from a dialog box inside the SmartConsole GUI application

C.

Typing API commands using Gaia’s secure shell(clish)19+

D.

Sending API commands over an http connection using web-services

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Questions 35

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

Options:

A.

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

B.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

C.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

D.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

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Questions 36

The fwd process on the Security Gateway sends logs to the fwd process on the Management Server, where it is forwarded to___________via____________

Options:

A.

cpd, fwm

B.

cpm, cpd

C.

fwm, cpd

D.

cpwd, fwssd

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Questions 37

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

Options:

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

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Questions 38

What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

156-315.81 Question 38

Options:

A.

Remove the installed Security Policy.

B.

Remove the local ACL lists.

C.

No effect.

D.

Reset SIC on all gateways.

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Questions 39

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Options:

A.

Lagging

B.

Synchronized

C.

Never been synchronized

D.

Collision

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Questions 40

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.

Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

Options:

A.

IKE Phase 1

B.

IPSEC Phase 2

C.

IPSEC Phase 1

D.

IKE Phase 2

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Questions 41

What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

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Questions 42

What command would show the API server status?

Options:

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

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Questions 43

After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management-interface and default gateway are incorrect.

Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.

Options:

A.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

B.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

C.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0set static-route 0.0.0.0. 0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config

D.

set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config

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Questions 44

Which NAT rules are prioritized first?

Options:

A.

Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

B.

Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

C.

Automatic Hide NAT

D.

Automatic Static NAT

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Questions 45

Alice & Bob are going to use Management Data Plane Separation and therefore the routing separation needs to be enabled. Which of the following command is true for enabling the Ma n agement Data Plane Separation (MDPS):

Options:

A.

set mdps split brain on

B.

set mdps split plane on

C.

set mdps mgmt plane on

D.

set mdps data plane off

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Questions 46

Vanessa is expecting a very important Security Report. The Document should be sent as an attachment via e-mail. An e-mail with Security_report.pdf file was delivered to her e-mail inbox. When she opened the PDF file, she noticed that the file is basically empty and only few lines of text are in it. The report is missing some graphs, tables and links.

Which component of SandBlast protection is her company using on a Gateway?

Options:

A.

SandBlast Threat Emulation

B.

SandBlast Agent

C.

Check Point Protect

D.

SandBlast Threat Extraction

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Questions 47

How many interfaces can you configure to use the Multi-Queue feature?

Options:

A.

10 interfaces

B.

3 interfaces

C.

4 interfaces

D.

5 interfaces

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Questions 48

What is the SOLR database for?

Options:

A.

Used for full text search and enables powerful matching capabilities

B.

Writes data to the database and full text search

C.

Serves GUI responsible to transfer request to the DLE server

D.

Enables powerful matching capabilities and writes data to the database

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Questions 49

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However, they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Terminal Servers Agent

C.

Identity Agents

D.

Browser-Based Authentication

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Questions 50

Which Check Point process provides logging services, such as forwarding logs from Gateway to Log Server, providing Log Export API (LEA) & Event Logging API (EL-A) services.

Options:

A.

DASSERVICE

B.

FWD

C.

CPVIEWD

D.

CPD

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Questions 51

The Check Point Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicates with the Security Gateway(s) over Check Point SIC via:

Options:

A.

TCP Port 19009

B.

TCP Port 18190

C.

TCP Port 18191

D.

TCP Port 18209

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Questions 52

Which Check Point software blade provides visibility of users, groups and machines while also providing access control through identity-based policies?

Options:

A.

Application Control

B.

Firewall

C.

Identity Awareness

D.

URL Filtering

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Questions 53

After some changes in the firewall policy you run into some issues. You want to test if the policy from two weeks ago have the same issue. You don ' t want to lose the changes from the last weeks. What is the best way to do it?

Options:

A.

Use the Gaia WebUI to take a backup of the Gateway. In SmartConsole under Security Pol i cies go to the Installation History view of the Gateway, select the policy version

from two weeks ago and press the ' Install specific version ' button

B.

Use the Gaia WebUI to take a snapshot of management. In the In SmartConsole under Ma n age & Settlings go to Sessions - > Revisions and select the revision from two

weeks ago. Run the action ' Revert to this revision... ' Restore the management snapshot.

C.

In SmartConsole under Manage & Settings go to Sessions - > Revisions and select the rev i sion from two weeks ago. Run the action ' Revert to this revision... ' .

D.

In SmartConsole under Security Policies go to the Installation History view of the Gateway, select the policy version from two weeks ago and press the ' Install specific

version ' button

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Questions 54

Which two Cluster Solutions are available under R81.20?

Options:

A.

ClusterXL and NSRP

B.

VRRPandHSRP

C.

VRRP and IP Clustering

D.

ClusterXL and VRitP

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Questions 55

According to out of the box SmartEvent policy, which blade will automatically be correlated into events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

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Questions 56

What is the recommended configuration when the customer requires SmartLog indexing for 14 days and SmartEvent to keep events for 180 days?

Options:

A.

Use Multi-Domain Management Server.

B.

Choose different setting for log storage and SmartEvent db

C.

Install Management and SmartEvent on different machines.

D.

it is not possible.

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Questions 57

Which of the following is NOT a type of Endpoint Identity Agent?

Options:

A.

Terminal

B.

Light

C.

Full

D.

Custom

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Questions 58

What are the services used for Cluster Synchronization?

Options:

A.

256H-CP tor Full Sync and 8116/UDP for Delta Sync

B.

8116/UDP for Full Sync and Delta Sync

C.

TCP/256 for Full Sync and Delta Sync

D.

No service needed when using Broadcast Mode

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Questions 59

What is Dynamic Balancing?

Options:

A.

It is a ClusterXL feature that switches an HA cluster into an LS cluster if required to maximize throughput

B.

It is a feature that uses a daemon to balance the required number of firewall instances and SNDs based on the current load

C.

It is a new feature that is capable of dynamically reserve the amount of Hash kernel memory to reflect the resource usage necessary for maximizing the session rate.

D.

It is a CoreXL feature that assigns the SND to network interfaces to balance the RX Cache of the interfaces

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Questions 60

The Check Point history feature in R81 provides the following:

Options:

A.

View install changes and install specific version

B.

View install changes

C.

Policy Installation Date, view install changes and install specific version

D.

Policy Installation Date only

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Questions 61

The back-end database for Check Point R81 Management uses:

Options:

A.

DBMS

B.

MongoDB

C.

PostgreSQL

D.

MySQL

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Questions 62

You have used the SmartEvent GUI to create a custom Event policy. What is the best way to display the correlated Events generated by SmartEvent Policies?

Options:

A.

Open SmartView Monitor and select the SmartEvent Window from the main menu.

B.

In the SmartConsole / Logs & Monitor -- > open the Logs View and use type:Correlated as query filter.

C.

In the SmartConsole / Logs & Monitor - > open a new Tab and select External Apps / SmartEvent.

D.

Select the Events tab in the SmartEvent GUI or use the Events tab in the SmartView web interface.

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Questions 63

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

Options:

A.

Monitor

B.

CLI.sh

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Questions 64

Connections to the Check Point R80 Web API use what protocol?

Options:

A.

SIC

B.

SOAP

C.

HTTPS

D.

HTTP

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Questions 65

Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using the ______ or _____ .

Options:

A.

GaiaUI; command line interface

B.

WebUI; Gaia Interface

C.

Command line interface; WebUI

D.

Gaia Interface; GaiaUI

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Questions 66

According to the policy installation flow the transfer state (CPTA) is responsible for the code generated by the FWM. On the Security Gateway side a process receives them and first stores them Into a temporary directory. Which process is true for receiving these Tiles;

Options:

A.

FWD

B.

CPD

C.

FWM

D.

RAD

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Questions 67

True or False: In R81, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.

Options:

A.

False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.

B.

True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the other administrators.

C.

True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the other administrators.

D.

False, only one administrator can login with write permission.

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Questions 68

Alice wants to upgrade the current security management machine from R80.40 to R81.20 and she wants to check the Deployment Agent status over the GAIA CLISH. Which of the following GAIACLISH command is true?

Options:

A.

show agent status

B.

show uninstaller status

C.

show installer packages

D.

show installer status

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Questions 69

Which of the following is true regarding the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT?

Options:

A.

The local.arp file must always be configured

B.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

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Questions 70

In which deployment is the security management server and Security Gateway installed on the same appliance?

Options:

A.

Standalone

B.

Remote

C.

Distributed

D.

Bridge Mode

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Questions 71

By default how often updates are checked when the CPUSE Software Updates Policy is set to Automatic?

Options:

A.

Six times per day

B.

Seven times per day

C.

Every two hours

D.

Every three hours

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Questions 72

John is using Management HA. Which Security Management Server should he use for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active SmartConsole

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Log Server

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Questions 73

Fill in the blanks: In the Network policy layer, the default action for the Implied last rule is ____ all traffic. However, in the Application Control policy layer, the default action is ______ all traffic.

Options:

A.

Accept; redirect

B.

Accept; drop

C.

Redirect; drop

D.

Drop; accept

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Questions 74

What is correct statement about Security Gateway and Security Management Server failover in Check Point R81.X in terms of Check Point Redundancy driven solution?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway failover is an automatic procedure but Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

B.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is a manual procedure.

C.

Security Gateway failover is a manual procedure but Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

D.

Security Gateway failover as well as Security Management Server failover is an automatic procedure.

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Questions 75

What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

A setting is defined in the Global Properties for all policies.

B.

A setting that is configured per Policy Layer.

C.

Another name for the Clean-up Rule.

D.

Automatically created when the Clean-up Rule is defined.

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Questions 76

NO: 219

What cloud-based SandBlast Mobile application is used to register new devices and users?

Options:

A.

Check Point Protect Application

B.

Management Dashboard

C.

Behavior Risk Engine

D.

Check Point Gateway

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Questions 77

What is the recommended number of physical network interfaces in a Mobile Access cluster deployment?

Options:

A.

4 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the internet, a third interface for synchronization, a fourth interface leading to the Security Management Server.

B.

3 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the Internet, a third interface for synchronization.

C.

1 Interface – an interface leading to the organization and the Internet, and configure for synchronization.

D.

2 Interfaces – a data interface leading to the organization and the Internet, a second interface for synchronization.

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Questions 78

Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace both offer secured connection for remote users who are using their mobile devices. However, there are differences between the two.

Which of the following statements correctly identify each product ' s capabilities?

Options:

A.

Workspace supports ios operating system, Android, and WP8, whereas Connect supports ios operating system and Android only

B.

For compliance/host checking, Workspace offers the MDM cooperative enforcement, whereas Connect offers both jailbreak/root detection and MDM cooperative enforcement.

C.

For credential protection, Connect uses One-time Password login support and has no SSO support, whereas Workspace offers both One-Time Password and certain SSO login support.

D.

Workspace can support any application, whereas Connect has a limited number of application types which it will support.

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Questions 79

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

Options:

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob-a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

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Questions 80

What command lists all interfaces using Multi-Queue?

Options:

A.

cpmq get

B.

show interface all

C.

cpmq set

D.

show multiqueue all

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Questions 81

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Questions 82

Which command lists firewall chain?

Options:

A.

fwctl chain

B.

fw list chain

C.

fw chain module

D.

fw tab -t chainmod

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Questions 83

Due to high CPU workload on the Security Gateway, the security administrator decided to purchase a new CPU to replace the existing single core CPU. After installation, is the administrator required to perform any additional tasks?

Options:

A.

Go to clash-Run cpstop | Run cpstart

B.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway

C.

Administrator does not need to perform any task. Check Point will make use of the newly installed CPU and Cores

D.

Go to clash-Run cpconfig | Configure CoreXL to make use of the additional Cores | Exit cpconfig | Reboot Security Gateway | Install Security Policy

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Questions 84

In CoreXL, the Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times. Each replicated copy or instance can perform the following:

Options:

A.

The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated

B.

The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out

C.

The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores

D.

The Firewall can run different policies per core

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Questions 85

Which TCP port does the CPM process listen on?

Options:

A.

18191

B.

18190

C.

8983

D.

19009

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Questions 86

A user complains that some Internet resources are not available. The Administrator is having issues seeing it packets are being dropped at the firewall (not seeing drops in logs). What is the solution to troubleshoot the issue?

Options:

A.

run fw unloadlocal " on the relevant gateway and check the ping again

B.

run " cpstop " on the relevant gateway and check the ping again

C.

run ‘’fw log " on the relevant gateway

D.

run ‘’fw ctl zdebug drop " on the relevant gateway

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Questions 87

If an administrator wants to add manual NAT for addresses now owned by the Check Point firewall, what else is necessary to be completed for it to function properly?

Options:

A.

Nothing - the proxy ARP is automatically handled in the R81 version

B.

Add the proxy ARP configurations in a file called /etc/conf/local.arp

C.

Add the proxy ARP configurations in a file called $FWDIR/conf/local.arp

D.

Add the proxy ARP configurations in a file called $CPDIR/conf/local.arp

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Questions 88

Which command is used to add users to or from existing roles?

Options:

A.

Add rba user < User Name > roles < List >

B.

Add rba user < User Name >

C.

Add user < User Name > roles < List >

D.

Add user < User Name >

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Questions 89

Can Check Point and Third-party Gateways establish a certificate-based Site-to-Site VPN tunnel?

Options:

A.

Yes, but they need to have a mutually trusted certificate authority

B.

Yes, but they have to have a pre-shared secret key

C.

No, they cannot share certificate authorities

D.

No, Certificate based VPNs are only possible between Check Point devices

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Questions 90

Which statement is false in respect of the SmartConsole after upgrading the management ser v er to R81.20?

Options:

A.

Yes. You can download the SmartConsole directly from the Download Center

B.

As far as you use version R80.40, no upgrade is needed due to compatibility mode

C.

Yes, using CPUSE you can make the installer available in the Web Portal of the Manag e ment Server

D.

Yes, the SmartConsole Upgrade package can be installed using CPUSE

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Questions 91

Is it possible to establish a VPN before the user login to the Endpoint Client?

Options:

A.

yes, you had to set neo_remember_user_password to true in the trac.defaults of the Remote Access Client or you can use the endpoint_vpn_remember_user_password

attribute in the trac_client_1 .ttm file located in the SFWDIR/conf directory on the Security Gateway

B.

no, the user must login first.

C.

yes. you had to set neo_always_connected to true in the trac.defaults of the Remote Access Client or you can use the endpoint_vpn_always_connected attribute in the

trac_client_1 .ttm file located in the SFWDIR/conf directory on the Security Gateway

D.

yes, you had to enable Machine Authentication in the Gateway object of the Smart Console

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Questions 92

What is the command switch to specify the Gaia API context?

Options:

A.

You have to specify it in the YAML file api.yml which is located underneath the /etc. directory of the security management server

B.

You have to change to the zsh-Shell which defaults to the Gaia API context.

C.

No need to specify a context, since it defaults to the Gaia API context.

D.

mgmt_cli --context gaia_api < Command >

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Questions 93

What is the correct order of the default “fw monitor” inspection points?

Options:

A.

i, o, l, O

B.

i, l, o, O

C.

1, 2, 3, 4

D.

l, i, O, o

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Questions 94

What API command below creates a new host object with the name " My Host " and IP address of " 192 168 0 10 " ?

Options:

A.

set host name " My Host " ip-address " 192.168.0.10 "

B.

new host name " My Host " ip-address " 192 168.0.10 "

C.

create host name " My Host " ip-address " 192.168 0.10 "

D.

mgmt.cli -m < mgmt ip > add host name " My Host " ip-address " 192.168.0 10 "

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Questions 95

identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access, and auditing based on what three items?

Options:

A.

Client machine IP address

B.

Network location the identity of a user and the identity of a machine

C.

Log server IP address

D.

Gateway proxy IP address

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Questions 96

The installation of a package via SmartConsole CANNOT be applied on

Options:

A.

A single Security Gateway

B.

A full Security Cluster (All Cluster Members included)

C.

Multiple Security Gateways and/or Clusters

D.

R81.20 Security Management Server

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Questions 97

Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

Options:

A.

a combination of computer or computer groups and networks.

B.

All of the above.

C.

remote access clients.

D.

users and user groups.

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Questions 98

Office mode means that:

Options:

A.

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

B.

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

C.

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

D.

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

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Questions 99

The following command is used to verify the CPUSE version:

Options:

A.

HostName:0 > show installer status build

B.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status

C.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status build

D.

HostName:0 > show installer build

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Questions 100

What is the difference between SSL VPN and IPSec VPN?

Options:

A.

IPSec VPN does not require installation of a resilient VPN client.

B.

SSL VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client.

C.

SSL VPN and IPSec VPN are the same.

D.

IPSec VPN requires installation of a resident VPN client and SSL VPN requires only an installed Browser.

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Questions 101

Which statements below are CORRECT regarding Threat Prevention profiles in Smart Dashboard?

Options:

A.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule Only.

B.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one rule only.

C.

You can assign multiple profiles per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

D.

You can assign only one profile per gateway and a profile can be assigned to one or more rules.

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Questions 102

What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?

Options:

A.

new host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

B.

set host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

C.

create host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

D.

add host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

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Questions 103

What is the purpose of a SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the connection reliability from SmartConsole to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit’s task it to assign severity levels to the identified events.

C.

The Correlation unit role is to evaluate logs from the log server component to identify patterns/threats and convert them to events.

D.

The SmartEvent Correlation Unit is designed to check the availability of the SmartReporter Server.

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Questions 104

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

Options:

A.

Analyzes each log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

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Questions 105

You are asked to check the status of several user-mode processes on the management server and gateway. Which of the following processes can only be seen on a Management Server?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpd

D.

cpwd

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Questions 106

In which formats can Threat Emulation forensics reports be viewed in?

Options:

A.

TXT, XML and CSV

B.

PDF and TXT

C.

PDF, HTML, and XML

D.

PDF and HTML

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Questions 107

What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Execute an automated script to perform common tasks

B.

Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database

C.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution

D.

Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution

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Questions 108

What are the main stages of a policy installation?

Options:

A.

Initiation, Conversion and FWD REXEC

B.

Verification, Commit, Installation

C.

Initiation, Conversion and Save

D.

Verification Compilation, Transfer and Commit

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Questions 109

You find one of your cluster gateways showing “Down” when you run the “cphaprob stat” command. You then run the “clusterXL_admin up” on the down member but unfortunately the member continues to show down. What command do you run to determine the cause?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –f register

B.

cphaprob –d –s report

C.

cpstat –f all

D.

cphaprob –a list

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Questions 110

SandBlast appliances can be deployed in the following modes:

Options:

A.

using a SPAN port to receive a copy of the traffic only

B.

detect only

C.

inline/prevent or detect

D.

as a Mail Transfer Agent and as part of the traffic flow only

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Questions 111

You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443

B.

TCP port 257

C.

TCP port 256

D.

UDP port 8116

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Questions 112

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

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Questions 113

To enable Dynamic Dispatch on Security Gateway without the Firewall Priority Queues, run the following command in Expert mode and reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch on

B.

fw ctl Dyn_Dispatch enable

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 4

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

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Questions 114

Which one of the following is true about Capsule Connect?

Options:

A.

It is a full layer 3 VPN client

B.

It offers full enterprise mobility management

C.

It is supported only on iOS phones and Windows PCs

D.

It does not support all VPN authentication methods

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Questions 115

Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

Log Consolidator

D.

Log Server

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Questions 116

How many policy layers do Access Control policy support?

Options:

A.

2

B.

4

C.

1

D.

3

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Questions 117

Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

SmartUpdate

B.

cpconfig

C.

SmartConsole

D.

sysconfig

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Questions 118

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

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Questions 119

You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.

What must you do to get SIC to work?

Options:

A.

Remove Geo-Protection, as the IP-to-country database is updated externally, and you have no control of this.

B.

Create a rule at the top in the Sydney firewall to allow control traffic from your network

C.

Nothing - Check Point control connections function regardless of Geo-Protection policy

D.

Create a rule at the top in your Check Point firewall to bypass the Geo-Protection

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Questions 120

Check Point security components are divided into the following components:

Options:

A.

GUI Client, Security Gateway, WebUI Interface

B.

GUI Client, Security Management, Security Gateway

C.

Security Gateway, WebUI Interface, Consolidated Security Logs

D.

Security Management, Security Gateway, Consolidate Security Logs

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Questions 121

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Stateful Mode configuration, chain modules marked with __________________ will not apply.

Options:

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

3

D.

2

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Questions 122

Please choose the path to monitor the compliance status of the Check Point R81.20 based management.

Options:

A.

Gateways & Servers -- > Compliance View

B.

Compliance blade not available under R81.20

C.

Logs & Monitor -- > New Tab -- > Open compliance View

D.

Security & Policies -- > New Tab -- > Compliance View

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Questions 123

Ken wants to obtain a configuration lock from other administrator on R81 Security Management Server. He can do this via WebUI or via CLI.

Which command should he use in CLI? (Choose the correct answer.)

Options:

A.

remove database lock

B.

The database feature has one command lock database override.

C.

override database lock

D.

The database feature has two commands lock database override and unlock database. Both will work.

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Questions 124

You want to verify if your management server is ready to upgrade to R81.20. What tool could you use in this process?

Options:

A.

migrate export

B.

upgrade_tools verify

C.

pre_upgrade_verifier

D.

migrate import

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Questions 125

What Factor preclude Secure XL Templating?

Options:

A.

Source Port Ranges/Encrypted Connections

B.

IPS

C.

ClusterXL in load sharing Mode

D.

CoreXL

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Questions 126

Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?

Options:

A.

cphaprob set_ccp multicast

B.

cphaconf set_ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf set_ccp no_broadcast

D.

cphaprob set_ccp no_broadcast

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Questions 127

Connections to the Check Point R81 Web API use what protocol?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

RPC

C.

VPN

D.

SIC

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Questions 128

Which of the following is a new R81 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies ae sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

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Questions 129

Which of the following type of authentication on Mobile Access can NOT be used as the first authentication method?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ID

B.

RADIUS

C.

Username and Password

D.

Certificate

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Questions 130

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidated management console. It empowers the migration from legacy Client-side logic to Server-side logic. The cpm process:

Options:

A.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 19001

B.

Allow GUI Client and management server to communicate via TCP Port 18191

C.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling policy.

D.

Performs database tasks such as creating, deleting, and modifying objects and compiling as well as policy code generation.

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Questions 131

What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

With SDF enabled, the involved VPN Gateways only supports IKEv1

B.

Acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF

C.

With SDF enabled, only ClusterXL in legacy mode is supported

D.

With SDF enabled, you can only have three Sync interfaces at most

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Questions 132

NAT rules are prioritized in which order?

1. Automatic Static NAT

2. Automatic Hide NAT

3. Manual/Pre-Automatic NAT

4. Post-Automatic/Manual NAT rules

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3, 4

B.

1, 4, 2, 3

C.

3, 1, 2, 4

D.

4, 3, 1, 2

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Questions 133

Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

It is not supported with either the Performance pack of a hardware based accelerator card

B.

Does not support SPI’s when configured for Load Sharing

C.

It is automatically disabled if the Mobile Access Software Blade is enabled on the cluster

D.

It is not required L2TP traffic

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Questions 134

Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

Options:

A.

Check Point Remote User

B.

Check Point Capsule Workspace

C.

Check Point Mobile Web Portal

D.

Check Point Capsule Remote

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Questions 135

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

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Questions 136

You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

Options:

A.

Inspect/Bypass

B.

Inspect/Prevent

C.

Prevent/Bypass

D.

Detect/Bypass

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Questions 137

The Firewall Administrator is required to create 100 new host objects with different IP addresses. What API command can he use in the script to achieve the requirement?

Options:

A.

add host name < New HostName > ip-address < ip address >

B.

add hostname < New HostName > ip-address < ip address >

C.

set host name < New HostName > ip-address < ip address >

D.

set hostname < New HostName > ip-address < ip address >

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Questions 138

Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

Options:

A.

User data base corruption

B.

LDAP conflicts

C.

Traffic issues

D.

Phase two key negotiations

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Questions 139

Fill in the blank: The tool _____ generates a R81 Security Gateway configuration report.

Options:

A.

infoCP

B.

infoview

C.

cpinfo

D.

fw cpinfo

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Questions 140

What happen when IPS profile is set in Detect Only Mode for troubleshooting?

Options:

A.

It will generate Geo-Protection traffic

B.

Automatically uploads debugging logs to Check Point Support Center

C.

It will not block malicious traffic

D.

Bypass licenses requirement for Geo-Protection control

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Questions 141

In order to get info about assignment (FW, SND) of all CPUs in your SGW, what is the most accurate CLI command?

Options:

A.

fw ctl sdstat

B.

fw ctl affinity –l –a –r –v

C.

fw ctl multik stat

D.

cpinfo

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Questions 142

Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

Options:

A.

15 sec

B.

60 sec

C.

5 sec

D.

30 sec

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Questions 143

What command verifies that the API server is responding?

Options:

A.

api stat

B.

api status

C.

show api_status

D.

app_get_status

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Questions 144

In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Options:

A.

Through the Unified Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

From SmartDashboard

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

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Questions 145

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Drop

C.

NAT

D.

None

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Questions 146

The Event List within the Event tab contains:

Options:

A.

a list of options available for running a query.

B.

the top events, destinations, sources, and users of the query results, either as a chart or in a tallied list.

C.

events generated by a query.

D.

the details of a selected event.

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Questions 147

Check Pont Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicates with the Security Gateway / Cluster Members over Check Point SIC _______ .

Options:

A.

TCP Port 18190

B.

TCP Port 18209

C.

TCP Port 19009

D.

TCP Port 18191

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Questions 148

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

This a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.

B.

This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.

C.

This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).

D.

Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.

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Questions 149

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher on a Security Gateway:

Options:

A.

run fw ctl multik set_mode 9 in Expert mode and then Reboot.

B.

Using cpconfig, update the Dynamic Dispatcher value to “full” under the CoreXL menu.

C.

Edit/proc/interrupts to include multik set_mode 1 at the bottom of the file, save, and reboot.

D.

run fw multik set_mode 1 in Expert mode and then reboot.

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Questions 150

What is true about VRRP implementations?

Options:

A.

VRRP membership is enabled in cpconfig

B.

VRRP can be used together with ClusterXL, but with degraded performance

C.

You cannot have a standalone deployment

D.

You cannot have different VRIDs in the same physical network

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Questions 151

What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Mode

B.

VPN Routing Mode

C.

Wire Mode

D.

Stateless Mode

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Questions 152

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

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Questions 153

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R81 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

Options:

A.

One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.

B.

One machine

C.

Two machines

D.

Three machines

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Questions 154

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

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Questions 155

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

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Questions 156

How can SmartView application accessed?

Options:

A.

http:// < Security Management IP Address > /smartview

B.

http:// < Security Management IP Address > :4434/smartview/

C.

https:// < Security Management IP Address > /smartview/

D.

https:// < Security Management host name > :4434/smartview/

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Questions 157

What is mandatory for ClusterXL to work properly?

Options:

A.

The number of cores must be the same on every participating cluster node

B.

The Magic MAC number must be unique per cluster node

C.

The Sync interface must not have an IP address configured

D.

If you have “Non-monitored Private” interfaces, the number of those interfaces must be the same on all cluster members

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Questions 158

Both ClusterXL and VRRP are fully supported by Gaia R81.20 and available to all Check Point appliances. Which the following command is NOT related to redundancy and functions?

Options:

A.

cphaprob stat

B.

cphaprob –a if

C.

cphaprob –l list

D.

cphaprob all show stat

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Questions 159

Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?

Options:

A.

Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats.

B.

Proactively detects threats.

C.

Delivers file with original content.

D.

Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed.

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Questions 160

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem < filename >

B.

show config –f < filename >

C.

save config –o < filename >

D.

save configuration < filename >

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Questions 161

Using Threat Emulation technologies, what is the best way to block .exe and .bat file types?

Options:

A.

enable DLP and select.exe and .bat file type

B.

enable .exe & .bat protection in IPS Policy

C.

create FW rule for particular protocol

D.

tecli advanced attributes set prohibited_file_types exe.bat

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Questions 162

Which directory below contains log files?

Options:

A.

/opt/CPSmartlog-R81/log

B.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/log

C.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/fw1/log

D.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/log

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Questions 163

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

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Questions 164

As a valid Mobile Access Method, what feature provides Capsule Connect/VPN?

Options:

A.

That is used to deploy the mobile device as a generator of one-time passwords for authenticating to an RSA Authentication Manager.

B.

Fill Layer4 VPN –SSL VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

C.

Full Layer3 VPN –IPSec VPN that gives users network access to all mobile applications.

D.

You can make sure that documents are sent to the intended recipients only.

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Questions 165

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

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Questions 166

An administrator would like to troubleshoot why templating is not working for some traffic. How can he determine at which rule templating is disabled?

Options:

A.

He can use the fw accel stat command on the gateway.

B.

He can use the fw accel statistics command on the gateway.

C.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the Security Management Server.

D.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the gateway

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Questions 167

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

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Questions 168

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.

OPSEC SDK

C.

Mobile Access

D.

Management

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Questions 169

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

Options:

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

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Questions 170

: 156

VPN Link Selection will perform the following when the primary VPN link goes down?

Options:

A.

The Firewall will drop the packets.

B.

The Firewall can update the Link Selection entries to start using a different link for the same tunnel.

C.

The Firewall will send out the packet on all interfaces.

D.

The Firewall will inform the client that the tunnel is down.

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Questions 171

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

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Questions 172

What are the main stages of a policy installations?

Options:

A.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit

B.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation

C.

Verification, Commit, Installation

D.

Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation

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Questions 173

What is the main difference between Threat Extraction and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

B.

Threat Extraction always delivers a file and takes less than a second to complete.

C.

Threat Emulation never delivers a file that takes less than a second to complete.

D.

Threat Extraction never delivers a file and takes more than 3 minutes to complete.

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Questions 174

Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?

Options:

A.

SecuRemote

B.

Endpoint Security Suite

C.

Endpoint Security VPN

D.

Check Point Mobile

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Questions 175

After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

Options:

A.

cvpnd_restart

B.

cvpnd_restart

C.

cvpnd restart

D.

cvpnrestart

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Questions 176

What information is NOT collected from a Security Gateway in a Cpinfo?

Options:

A.

Firewall logs

B.

Configuration and database files

C.

System message logs

D.

OS and network statistics

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Questions 177

What are the blades of Threat Prevention?

Options:

A.

IPS, DLP, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

B.

DLP, AntiVirus, QoS, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

C.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot

D.

IPS, AntiVirus, AntiBot, Sandblast Threat Emulation/Extraction

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Questions 178

Using mgmt_cli, what is the correct syntax to import a host object called Server_1 from the CLI?

Options:

A.

mgmt_cli add-host “Server_1” ip_address “10.15.123.10” --format txt

B.

mgmt_cli add host name “Server_1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

C.

mgmt_cli add object-host “Server_1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

D.

mgmt._cli add object “Server-1” ip-address “10.15.123.10” --format json

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Questions 179

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

Options:

A.

Once a week

B.

Once an hour

C.

Twice per day

D.

Once per day

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Questions 180

When setting up an externally managed log server, what is one item that will not be configured on the R81 Security Management Server?

Options:

A.

IP

B.

SIC

C.

NAT

D.

FQDN

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Questions 181

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Mobile Access

C.

Mail Transfer Agent

D.

Threat Cloud

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Questions 182

When simulating a problem on ClusterXL cluster with cphaprob –d STOP -s problem -t 0 register, to initiate a failover on an active cluster member, what command allows you remove the problematic state?

Options:

A.

cphaprob –d STOP unregister

B.

cphaprob STOP unregister

C.

cphaprob unregister STOP

D.

cphaprob –d unregister STOP

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Questions 183

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Questions 184

What are the steps to configure the HTTPS Inspection Policy?

Options:

A.

Go to Manage & Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Configure in SmartDashboard

B.

Go to Application & url filtering blade > Advanced > Https Inspection > Policy

C.

Go to Manage & Settings > Blades > HTTPS Inspection > Policy

D.

Go to Application & url filtering blade > Https Inspection > Policy

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Questions 185

You have existing dbedit scripts from R77. Can you use them with R81.20?

Options:

A.

dbedit is not supported in R81.20

B.

dbedit is fully supported in R81.20

C.

You can use dbedit to modify threat prevention or access policies, but not create or modify layers

D.

dbedit scripts are being replaced by mgmt_cli in R81.20

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Questions 186

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

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Questions 187

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

Options:

A.

Includes the registry

B.

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.

Does not resolve network addresses

D.

Output excludes connection table

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Questions 188

Which of these is an implicit MEP option?

Options:

A.

Primary-backup

B.

Source address based

C.

Round robin

D.

Load Sharing

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Questions 189

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

Options:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

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Exam Code: 156-315.81
Exam Name: Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 ( 156-315.81.20 )
Last Update: May 28, 2026
Questions: 636

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