CPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Questions and Answers

For a patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus and diabetic retinopathy with macular edema in the right eye, the correct ICD-10-CM code is E10.3511. This code specifically captures:

E10: Type 1 diabetes mellitus.

35: Diabetic retinopathy with macular edema.

1: Right eye.

Each choice addresses different severities or eye specifications:

A. E10.3211: Indicates mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy with macular edema in the right eye, not the general diabetic retinopathy category.

B. E10.3519: Refers to diabetic retinopathy with macular edema without specification to the right eye.

D. E10.311: Refers to nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy without macular edema in the right eye.

Thus, the correct answer is C. E10.3511, as it fully captures type 1 diabetes with diabetic retinopathy with macular edema in the right eye.

33779 = Arterial switch operation (definitive repair)

33955 = Open central cannulation for ECMO

33985 = ECMO management

Modifier -58 = staged/related procedure

C2617 = Implant, sinus, drug-eluting, absorbable

Cervical spondylosis with myelopathy: Condition requiring decompressive surgery.

Bilateral posterior laminectomy, facetectomies, foraminotomies: Procedures performed to decompress nerve roots.

Interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7: Specific levels where the procedures were performed.

CPT code 63045 is used for the initial cervical laminectomy, and 63048 is for each additional segment. The combination covers the decompression across two interspaces.

Modifier -79 is used to indicate an unrelated procedure or service performed by the same physician during the postoperative (global) period.

-57 = decision for surgery

-25 = significant, separately identifiable E/M

-55 = postoperative management only

Modifier usage is a high-yield CPC exam topic.

For Mohs micrographic surgery, CPT® coding is based on the anatomic location of the lesion, the number of stages, and the number of tissue blocks per stage.

17311: This code is used for Mohs surgery on body areas such as the trunk, arms, or legs for the first stage.

17315: This is an add-on code used when more than five tissue blocks are examined in a single stage. Since this case involved six tissue blocks, 17315 is appropriate.

Explanation of incorrect answers:

A. 17313, 17314, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 applies to the head, neck, hands, feet, or genitalia, not the arm.

C. 17313, 17315: Incorrect, as 17313 is not appropriate for the arm.

D. 17311, 17312, 17315: 17312 is used for additional stages beyond the first, which is not applicable here since only one stage was performed.

E. 85B2-335 is not a valid CPT code for Mohs surgery.

Thus, the correct answer is B. 17311, 17315, which accurately reflects a single-stage Mohs surgery with six tissue blocks on the arm.

The procedure involves a laparoscopic partial colectomy where the surgeon removes the proximal colon and terminal ileum, then reconnects the cut ends of the distal ileum and remaining colon.

Procedure Description:

Laparoscopic partial colectomy.

Removal of the proximal colon and terminal ileum.

Anastomosis of the distal ileum and remaining colon.

CPT® Coding:

44204: Laparoscopy, surgical; colectomy, partial, with anastomosis.

ICD-10-CM Coding:

C18.2: Malignant neoplasm of ascending colon.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

ICD-10-CM for corresponding diagnosis codes.

Acetaminophen is a specific drug with a dedicated quantitative laboratory code. Even if a lab method such asLC-MSis mentioned, CPC exam questions typically expect you to choose the CPT code that corresponds to theanalyte being measured, not to select a broad “definitive drug testing” category code when a specific drug assay code exists. CPT80143is the established code foracetaminophentesting (quantitative measurement). Codes in the 803xx range are commonly associated with drug screening/testing categories that do not specifically represent acetaminophen as a named analyte in the way CPC questions test. Code80299is an unlisted therapeutic drug assay and is not appropriate when a specific code (80143) exists. Therefore, the correct answer is80143. CPC strategy: when the substance is explicitly named and has a recognized assay code, choose thespecific drug test coderather than an unlisted or generalized testing category. The method (LC-MS) supports “definitive” testing clinically, but the code selection here is driven by the named analyte.

88027 = Autopsy, gross and microscopic, with CNS examination

88016/88020 exclude spinal cord or microscopy

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The procedure performed was an evisceration of ocular contents without the placement of an implant. The surgical microscope was used for enhanced visualization, but this does not require a separate code if the primary procedure code includes it inherently.

CPT® Code 65091 is used for an evisceration of the ocular contents without implant placement. This code correctly describes the procedure performed on the left eye.

2. Modifier:

Modifier LT is added to indicate that the procedure was performed on the left eye.

3. Exclusion of Code 69990:

Code 69990 is for the use of an operating microscope, but it should not be billed separately when it is used as part of a procedure where enhanced visualization is typical or expected, such as an evisceration procedure. According to CPT® guidelines, 69990 is not separately reported when the microscope is used for visualization in procedures where its use is considered part of the standard of care.

4. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 65093 is for an evisceration with implant placement, which does not apply since no implant was used.

Options B and C incorrectly include 69990, which is not separately reportable in this scenario.

5. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® coding guidelines, 65091 is sufficient to capture the procedure without the need to add code 69990 for the microscope.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 65091-LT.

This question tests two things: theextentof vulvectomy and the correct diagnosis code forVIN II. VIN II corresponds tomoderate vulvar dysplasia, which is coded asN90.1. VIN III would map to more severe dysplasia/carcinoma in situ-type coding; that is not what is documented here. For the procedure, the surgeon removed aportionof the vulva (less than 80%), including skin and deep subcutaneous tissue, which describes apartial (simple) vulvectomyrather than a radical vulvectomy. CPT56625represents asimple partial vulvectomy(partial removal). CPT56630is forradical vulvectomy, which is more extensive and not supported by the “less than 80%” partial description. Option D pairs an incorrect diagnosis code, and option C uses a diagnosis code that doesn’t match VIN II. Therefore, the correct combination is56625 with N90.1.

Warthin's tumor, also known as papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum, is a benign tumor of the salivary glands, most commonly affecting the parotid gland. It typically presents as a painless, slow-growing mass near the angle of the jaw.

ICD-10-CM, medical dictionaries, and oncology textbooks

The lesion is a benign congenital hairy nevus → benign lesion excision codes (11400–11446)

Location: thigh (trunk/arms/legs)

Excision size with margins = 4.5 cm → 11406 (4.1–5.0 cm)

Closure length = 5 cm, layered closure with limited undermining → intermediate repair

12032 = Intermediate repair, trunk/extremities, 2.6–7.5 cm

Modifier -51 applies to the secondary procedure

Procedure Coding:

72158 – MRI, lumbar spine; without contrast, followed by with contrast

Single comprehensive code

Diagnosis Coding:

M54.42 – Low back pain with sciatica, left side

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B / C – Incorrectly unbundling MRI codes

D – Coding additional unspecified low back pain is inappropriate

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a suppression study involving five glucose tests and five human growth hormone tests.

CPT® Code 80430 represents a suppression panel specifically for growth hormone studies, which includes various assessments for diagnosing abnormal growth.

CPT® Code 82947 is used for each glucose test performed, and since five glucose tests were conducted, it should be coded as 82947 x 5.

CPT® Code 83003 is used for each human growth hormone test performed, and since five tests were conducted, it should be coded as 83003 x 5.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option A lists 82947 x 2 and 83003 without sufficient units to account for the five tests each, which does not match the actual number of tests performed.

Option B omits the suppression panel code 80430, which is necessary for documenting the overall suppression study.

Option D does not provide the correct quantity of glucose and growth hormone tests, which were each performed five times.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, when a suppression panel includes multiple components that are performed more than once, the specific panel code 80430 should be used along with the correct number of individual component codes.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 80430, 82947 x 5, 83003 x 5.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a repair of a ruptured aneurysm in the popliteal artery, involving incision, dissection, clamping, removal of the aneurysmal section, and patch grafting.

Code 35151 is the correct CPT® code for the repair of an aneurysm in the popliteal artery, as it specifically describes aneurysm repair in this location.

Code 35081 applies to aneurysm repair in the abdominal aorta, which does not pertain to the popliteal artery location.

Code 35152 is for an aneurysm repair involving the popliteal artery with vein graft, but there is no mention of a vein graft in this scenario, only a patch graft.

Code 35045 is used for repair of an aneurysm in the brachial artery and does not apply to the popliteal artery.

2. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, CPT® codes for aneurysm repair should be chosen based on the specific artery involved. Code 35151 is precisely for popliteal artery aneurysm repair without a vein graft, making it the most accurate choice.

Thus, based on CPT® guidelines and procedural details, the verified answer is B. 35151.

The patient is an established patient presenting with bilateral thyroid nodules and has a detailed history and examination performed.

Procedure Description:

Detailed history and examination of bilateral thyroid nodules.

Review of systems and physical examination.

Assessment and plan for a percutaneous biopsy.

CPT® Coding:

99214: Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient, which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and moderate medical decision making.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on evaluation and management services.

72158 = MRI lumbar spine without and with contrast

M54.42 = Low back pain with sciatica, left side

Separate pain codes are not reported redundantly

K0001 = Standard wheelchair

Other K000 codes represent specialized wheelchairs

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

44212 – Laparoscopic partial colectomy with end colostomy and closure of distal segment (Hartmann-type procedure)

Correct because:

Sigmoid/descending colon resection

Proximal colostomy created

Distal rectal stump closed

44213 – Laparoscopic mobilization of splenic flexure

Separately reportable because:

Mobilization was necessary to exteriorize colon for colostomy

Not bundled into 44212

Modifier not required (no multiple-procedure discount with add-on logic)

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

K57.33 – Diverticulitis of large intestine with perforation and bleeding, without abscess

Documentation supports:

Diverticulitis

Active bleeding

No abscess reported

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A / B – 44206 = colectomy with anastomosis (not performed)

A / B – K57.41 includes abscess (not documented)

C – Missing splenic flexure add-on explanation

CPT® & ICD-10-CM Guideline Alignment:

Hartmann procedure ≠ anastomosis

Bleeding elevates diagnosis specificity

Splenic flexure mobilization is separately reportable when clinically required

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver with ultrasound guidance to assess primary biliary cirrhosis.

Code 47000 is the CPT® code for a percutaneous liver biopsy. This code encompasses the biopsy procedure itself.

Ultrasound guidance is commonly inherent to biopsy procedures, and guidance is not separately reported if the main code (47000) includes the technique used.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code K74.5 is the correct code for primary biliary cirrhosis, which is specifically indicated in this case.

K74.3 is the code for other specified cirrhosis of the liver but is less specific than K74.5, making K74.5 the appropriate choice here.

3. Exclusion of Other Codes:

Code 47100 (option A) is for an open liver biopsy, which does not apply to this percutaneous procedure.

Codes 10005 (biopsy with imaging guidance) and 76942 (ultrasound guidance) would be redundant or incorrect since the main procedure code, 47000, sufficiently describes a percutaneous liver biopsy.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines state that guidance is included in certain biopsy codes when performed for the targeted organ, such as in 47000 for a liver biopsy.

Therefore, based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM coding rules, the correct answer is C. 47000, K74.5.

For the excision of an 11 cm lesion with a rotation flap repair, the appropriate CPT codes are 14001 for the adjacent tissue transfer or rearrangement (12 sq cm flap) and 11606-51 for the excision of a malignant lesion including margins, face, ears, eyelids, nose, lips; excised diameter over 4.0 cm. Modifier 51 indicates multiple procedures. The detailed operative report specifies the lesion size and the technique used, justifying these codes.

11403 = Excision of benign lesion, trunk, 2.1–3.0 cm

Simple closure is included in excision codes

No separate closure code is reported.

Correct answer: A

44970 = Laparoscopic appendectomy

K36 = Chronic appendicitis

Symptoms are not coded once definitive diagnosis is made

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The cardiologist provided remote monitoring over a 30-day period for a hemodynamic pulmonary artery pressure monitor implanted in a patient with congestive heart failure.

CPT® Code 93264 is appropriate for remote monitoring of a hemodynamic system for up to 30 days. This code includes services such as weekly data transmissions, interpretation, trend analysis, and reporting—exactly as described in this case.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 93286 is for in-person interrogation and programming of pacemakers or defibrillators, not for remote monitoring of a hemodynamic monitor, making it incorrect.

Code 93288 is for interrogation device evaluation (remote), specifically for pacemakers or defibrillators, and does not apply to a pulmonary artery pressure monitor.

Code 93279 is for in-person programming of certain cardiac devices, which does not match the remote monitoring described in this scenario.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC and CPT® guidelines specify that 93264 is the correct code when reporting remote hemodynamic monitoring for a pulmonary artery pressure device over a period of up to 30 days, including data review and interpretation.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. 93264.

This service is alumbar discographyat a single level (L3–L4) withinjection of contrastinto the intervertebral disc underfluoroscopic (C-arm) guidancewhile the patient is awake/able to report symptoms, which is exactly what CPT62290describes for diagnostic discography at a lumbar level. CPT62292is used for discography in a different spinal region (and is not supported by the “L3–4” lumbar level stated multiple times). The post-discography CT scan is referenced as planned/reviewed but is not clearly documented as performed/interpreted as part of this same physician service in the stem, and it is not part of the answer choices. For ICD-10-CM, the confirmed postoperative finding is “normal discography,” but the reason for the study remains the patient’slow back painand suspected stenosis; in outpatient/procedural settings you code thereason for the testwhen the definitive suspected condition is not confirmed. Here, the stenosis was ruled out (“no evidence”), so donotcode spinal stenosis; reportM54.50for low back pain. Therefore,62290 with M54.50is correct.

The described scope reaches thesigmoid colon, which is consistent with aflexible sigmoidoscopyrather than a full colonoscopy. The key therapeutic action is that the polyps were treated byablation(destruction), not snare excision or biopsy. CPT45346represents flexible sigmoidoscopy withablationof tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesion(s). You report the sigmoidoscopy ablation codeoncefor the session; you do not multiply it by the number of polyps unless CPT instructions explicitly direct unit reporting (which is not the standard approach for these endoscopic therapeutic codes). For diagnosis, polyps in thesigmoid colonare coded asK63.5 (polyp of colon).K62.1is arectal polypcode and does not fit because the polyps are in the sigmoid colon. Therefore,45346withK63.5is correct. CPC exam tip: match thescope extent(sigmoid) and theremoval method(ablation).

Fascia debridement → 11043 (first 20 sq cm)

Subcutaneous debridement → 11042

Multiple anatomical sites → Modifier -59

Add-on code 11045 for additional subcutaneous surface area

The code 99471 is used for initial inpatient neonatal critical care, per day, for the evaluation and management of a critically ill infant or young child. Given the scenario where a 4-year-old critically ill child is admitted to the PICU and requires intensive care management, this code is appropriate as it reflects the critical care provided beyond the emergency department services. References: CPT® Professional Edition (current year), AMA.

ICD-10-CM has a clear hierarchy when the same substance is documented with multiple levels of severity.Dependencerepresents a higher severity classification thanabuse, andabuseis higher thanuse. When two or more of these are documented for the same substance, you generally assignonly one code, selecting thehighest level of severitysupported: dependence over abuse, and abuse over use. Therefore, if bothuse and dependenceare documented, you assigndependence only(Option D). Option A is incorrect because you do not code both use and abuse for the same substance; you choose the higher severity (abuse). Option B is incorrect because if abuse and dependence are both documented, you would codedependence, not abuse. Option C is incorrect because ICD-10-CM does not support reporting all three separately for the same substance; doing so would be duplicative and noncompliant. CPC exam tip: remember the mnemonicD-A-U→Dependence > Abuse > Use(pick the highest).

IV hydration is coded byduration. CPT96360is forinitial intravenous hydration(typically the first hour). CPT96361is an add-on code foreach additional hourbeyond the initial hour, reported when the hydration time exceeds 60 minutes and meets the additional-hour threshold. The scenario documents hydration for1 hour and 30 minutes (90 minutes). That supports reporting theinitial hour(96360) plusone additional hour(96361) because the infusion extends beyond the initial hour and reaches the qualifying threshold for an additional hour as defined by CPT time rules (time is rounded/assigned based on midpoints, not per minute). The other options usetherapeutic infusioncodes (96365/96366), which are for medications/drugs, not for hydration with normal saline when the primary purpose is hydration. CPC exam tip: if the service is specifically “hydration” and the fluid is normal saline for dehydration/heat exhaustion, use96360/96361and apply time-based logic.

This is areturn to the operating room during the postoperative period(two months after the original fracture repair) by thesame surgeon, and the new surgery is related to the original condition/hardware, so a postoperative modifier is needed. The scenario describes a complication-related problem (hardware displacement with malunion) requiring operative correction, which aligns withmodifier -78(unplanned return to the OR for a related procedure during the postoperative period). Diagnosis coding includes a complication of internal orthopedic device:T84.122Acorresponds todisplacement of internal fixation device of bones of forearm(initial encounter for the complication). The fracture condition being treated is amalunionof the right radius shaft; malunion is captured with the fracture code and the 7th characterPfor subsequent encounter for fracture with malunion:S52.301P. Among options,25405-78is the correct procedural selection provided for repair of malunion in this context (as tested by the item), paired withT84.122AandS52.301P. Therefore, optionBis correct.

A “subcutaneous cardiac rhythm monitor” describes animplantable loop recorder(insertable cardiac monitor) placed under the skin for long-term rhythm surveillance. When the entire monitor system isremoved, CPT provides a specific removal code rather than using pacemaker/ICD removal codes.33286is the CPT code forremoval of an insertable cardiac monitor. The timing (14 months after implantation) supports that this is not an immediate post-op revision but a standard removal after monitoring is complete or the device is no longer needed. The distractors represent other cardiac device services:33241is removal of an implantable defibrillator pulse generator (not a loop recorder), and33272/33273relate to other cardiac device procedures rather than removal of an insertable monitor. CPC strategy: identify the device category—loop recorder/insertable cardiac monitor—and match the service—removal—to the dedicated code. This avoids incorrectly reporting pacemaker/ICD codes, which are different devices with different procedural work and coding families.

Breaking down the term:

Cyst/o = bladder

Proct/o = rectum

-stomy = creation of an opening

Cystoproctostomy is the surgical creation of an opening between the bladder and the rectum.

The other options involve different organs:

Gastroenterocolostomy – stomach to intestine

Colocholecystostomy – colon to gallbladder

Nephropyelostomy – kidney to renal pelvis

For a patient in observation care, selecting the correct E/M codes requires evaluating each day's service level and the provider's documentation.

Day 1: The patient was admitted for observation, and the physician prescribed IV and SQ insulin, noting diabetes with hyperglycemia requiring complex management. The CPT® code 99235 is appropriate here because it represents an initial observation or inpatient care for patients with high-complexity medical decision-making (MDM), which aligns with the patient's unstable glucose and the management requirements.

Day 2: The patient's glucose levels improved, and the provider documented spending 25 minutes with the patient in continued observation care. Since this is an established patient with continued observation, 99231 applies here, indicating subsequent observation care with low MDM complexity.

Day 3: The provider documented spending 15 minutes with the patient, whose glucose levels normalized, and then discharged the patient from observation care. Code 99238 is used for a discharge from observation care and is selected based on discharge times under 30 minutes.

These codes were selected based on CPT® guidelines for observation care and the provider’s time-based documentation. This matches the medical decision complexity documented per the case and code descriptions available for observation care management.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a needle biopsy of the liver using CT guidance to obtain two core biopsy samples.

CPT® Code 47000 is for a percutaneous needle biopsy of the liver, which covers the liver biopsy procedure.

CPT® Code 77012 is the correct code for CT guidance for needle placement in soft tissue, which includes the guidance required to obtain accurate liver biopsy samples.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 47001 in option A is an add-on code for a liver biopsy performed during another procedure (such as a laparoscopic or open procedure) and is not applicable in this case, as 47000 is sufficient for a percutaneous approach.

Code 76942 (in option A) represents ultrasound guidance, not CT guidance, and thus is incorrect.

Code 77002 (in option B) is used for fluoroscopic guidance for needle placement, which is not applicable since CT guidance was used.

Option C incorrectly includes 47001, which is not needed as 47000 fully covers the percutaneous needle biopsy.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 47000 is used for percutaneous liver biopsies, and 77012 should be reported for CT guidance for needle placement in the liver.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 47000, 77012.

The scenario describes an emergency basic life support (BLS) ambulance service. The appropriate HCPCS Level II code for BLS emergency transport is A0429.

Modifier QN indicates that the service was provided by an ambulance supplier, and SH indicates the services were provided in an emergency situation.

HCPCS Level II, current year

For a physician who owns the equipment and interprets the chest X-rays (both frontal and lateral views), code 71046 is used. This code includes both the technical and professional components, as the equipment is owned by the physician group and the physician also provides the interpretation.

The outermost protective layer of the skin is called the epidermis. It serves as a barrier to protect the body against environmental elements, pathogens, and helps to retain moisture. The epidermis itself is composed of several sub-layers, with the stratum corneum being the outermost layer.

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 12: Diseases of the Skin and Subcutaneous Tissue (L00-L99).

Spirometry performedbefore and after bronchodilatoris coded with94060. That code includes the pre- and post-bronchodilator spirometry components as a single bundled service, so it already captures the “before and after” testing. The scenario also lists measurements like vital capacity/breathing capacity and flow volume, but the defining element for coding is thebronchodilator responsiveness testingcaptured by 94060. For diagnosis, “intermittent asthma with exacerbation” maps toJ45.21(mild intermittent asthma with (acute) exacerbation). CodeJ45.901represents “unspecified asthma with (acute) exacerbation” and is not as specific as the documented intermittent asthma. Options using94070do not represent spirometry pre/post bronchodilator testing; they are different pulmonary testing codes. CPC exam focus: choose the most specific asthma diagnosis available and recognize that94060already includes the pre/post testing, so adding a separate basic spirometry code in the same session is typically not correct, but the test’s options explicitly pair 94060 and 94010—within those choices, optionBcorrectly matches the diagnosis specificity.

Complex (arm, 4 cm) → 13121

Intermediate legs total = 20.5 cm → 12036

Simple face closures coded separately:

12013 (cheek)

12011 (nose)

Modifiers allow separate anatomical reporting.

Correct answer: A

29827: Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair is correctly coded as 29827.

29828: Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis is an additional procedure and should be coded as 29828 with modifier -51 (Multiple Procedures).

29824: Arthroscopic claviculectomy (partial resection of the distal clavicle) is coded as 29824 with modifier -51.

29826: Arthroscopic subacromial decompression, including coracoacromial ligament release, is coded as 29826.

All these procedures were performed arthroscopically and documented in the operative report, justifying the use of these codes and the use of modifier -51 for multiple procedures.

CPT® Professional Edition, AMA

Medicare Part B provides coverage for outpatient services, including physician services, preventive care, outpatient procedures, diagnostic tests, and durable medical equipment. Part B is a key component of Medicare, covering medically necessary services and some preventive services.

A. Part C (Medicare Advantage) includes all benefits and services covered under Parts A and B and often additional services, but it is provided through private insurance companies.

C. Part A covers inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facility care, hospice, and some home health services.

D. Part D provides coverage for prescription drugs.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. Part B.

26910 = Excision of supernumerary digit with bone/joint involvement

11200 = Removal of skin tag / soft tissue lesion

Laterality modifiers correctly identify different procedures on different sides

The patient is seeing a new doctor in the same specialty group for an enlarged goiter and is undergoing a medically appropriate history and exam, along with a fine needle aspiration biopsy.

Procedure Description:

Medically appropriate history and exam.

Review of TSH results and ultrasound.

Ordering of fine needle aspiration biopsy.

CPT® Coding:

99202: Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient, which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and straightforward medical decision making.

Since it has been two years since the last visit and the patient is being seen by a new doctor in the same specialty group, the encounter is considered a new patient visit.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on evaluation and management services.

The operative service is anamputation of the left third toe at the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. CPT28820describes toe amputationthrough the MTP joint, matching the “amputation at the metatarsophalangeal joint” language and the incision encircling the joint with removal of the toe after dividing tendons/ligaments. ModifierT2correctly identifies theleft foot, third digit. Diagnosis coding must capture the ischemic disease withgangreneplus thenon-pressure chronic ulceron the toe. In the answer set,I70.262represents lower-extremity atherosclerosis/PVDwith gangrene(left side per the option). The chronic ulcer is separately reported using the providedL97.528non-pressure ulcer code for the left foot/toe severity category offered by the choices. Antibiotic prophylaxis (Ancef), anesthesia type, tourniquet use/time, and technique details support the procedure but do not change the core CPT/ICD-10-CM selection. Therefore, the correct combination is28820-T2, I70.262, L97.528.

37267 = Iliac artery stent placement

Angioplasty is bundled into the stent code

The operative report documents amalignant lesion excision(basal cell carcinoma) on theright forearmfollowed by reconstruction with anadjacent tissue transfer (rotation flap)afterfrozen sectionconfirmed clear margins. In CPT, when a defect is repaired withadjacent tissue transfer/rearrangement, the flap code includes the work ofexcision (including necessary undermining and preparation of the recipient site)performed as part of creating and closing the defect; therefore the malignant excision code (e.g.,11606) isnot separately reportedin this same session when the excision is integral to the flap repair. Code selection for adjacent tissue transfer is based on theanatomic siteand thetotal defect area (primary + secondary defects). The documentedtotal area is 8 sq cm, and the site is theforearm (arm/leg grouping). For arms/legs,10 sq cm or lessis reported with14020. Codes14040apply to a different anatomic region grouping and do not match the forearm. Frozen section pathology/margin control does not change the primary surgical coding here. Therefore, report14020 only.

Penile prosthesis coding is determined by thetype of deviceand whether the procedure is asimple insertion, areplacement, or a more complex scenario. Anon-inflatable(malleable or semi-rigid) penile prosthesis is specifically reported withCPT 54416. Inflatable devices are coded differently (commonly with a different code family), and replacement/revision services may also have distinct codes depending on what is removed and replaced. In this question, the vignette is straightforward: erectile dysfunction treated with insertion of anon-inflatable prosthesis—no mention of prior implant, revision, or removal—so the correct code is the primary insertion code for that device type. The distractors include other penile procedures and prosthesis-related codes that do not match “non-inflatable insertion.” CPC exam tip: lock onto “non-inflatable” vs “inflatable,” and then confirm the action isinsertionrather than revision or replacement. That leads to54416.

Modifier50indicates abilateral procedureperformed during the same session when the CPT code describes aunilateralservice and there isno specific bilateral codethat must be used instead. Among the options,73115(radiologic supervision and interpretation for wrist arthrography) is a service that can reasonably be performed onboth wristsand is a typical example of a code where bilateral reporting may be appropriate with modifier50when supported.77066is already abilateral diagnostic mammographycode, so modifier 50 is not appropriate because the bilateral nature is built into the code description.77065is unilateral diagnostic mammography, but CPT provides the bilateral option (77066), so the correct CPT approach for both breasts is to report the bilateral code rather than append 50 to the unilateral code.75572is a cardiac CT service and is not a bilateral paired-organ code in the usual modifier-50 sense. CPC exam tip: use 50 for true paired structures when no bilateral code exists and payer rules permit.

89258 = Thawing of cryopreserved embryos

89250 = Culture of embryos, per day (reported once per encounter)

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient initially underwent a laparoscopic total abdominal hysterectomy for endometriosis of the uterus. However, due to extensive adhesions, the surgeon converted the procedure to an open total abdominal hysterectomy to complete the surgery.

CPT® Code 58150 is appropriate for a total abdominal hysterectomy, including removal of the uterus and cervix, via an open approach. Since the procedure was converted to an open approach, 58150 is the correct code.

The -22 modifier is added to indicate increased procedural services due to the extensive adhesiolysis (removal of adhesions), which extended the surgery duration.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code N80.00 is used for endometriosis of the uterus, which is the primary condition that prompted the hysterectomy.

ICD-10-CM Code N73.6 is appropriate for female pelvic peritoneal adhesions, reflecting the extensive adhesions that necessitated the conversion to open surgery.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 58571 (in options B and C) is for a laparoscopic approach, which is incorrect because the procedure was converted to an open approach.

The -78 modifier is incorrect in this context because the conversion to open surgery was part of the same operative session and not an unplanned return to the OR.

Diagnosis code N99.4 (in options B and D) pertains to postprocedural pelvic adhesions, which does not apply here as the adhesions were not due to a prior procedure.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines specify using 58150 for an open total abdominal hysterectomy and adding the -22 modifier for increased complexity or time due to factors like extensive adhesiolysis.

Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM guidelines is A. 58150-22, N80.00, N73.6.

For ERCP, CPT coding follows the rule that thetherapeutic ERCP code includes the diagnostic ERCP workperformed during the same session. In this case, the key performed service isstent insertion into the biliary duct, which is captured by43274(ERCP with placement of endoscopic stent into biliary or pancreatic duct). You donotseparately report the diagnostic ERCP code43260when the therapeutic service (stent placement) is performed, because the diagnostic component is considered part of the overall ERCP service. Code43276is used forstent removal and/or exchange, which is not described here. Option D is incorrect because it pairs another ERCP service with stent placement, and the scenario does not support multiple distinct ERCP therapeutic services beyond stenting. CPC exam tip: when a single ERCP session includes diagnostic evaluation plus a therapeutic intervention, report themost definitive therapeutic ERCP code—here,43274.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes a labial gland biopsy of the salivary gland, performed in the office with a local anesthetic. The provider made an incision in the lower labial mucosa and took tissue samples from the salivary gland for biopsy.

Code 42400 is the correct CPT® code for a biopsy of a salivary gland. This code is specific to a biopsy without a more extensive excision or major surgery, aligning perfectly with the scenario of sampling salivary gland tissue.

2. Ruling Out Other Options:

Code 42408 is for the excision of a deep lobe of a parotid gland, which is a more extensive procedure than a simple biopsy and does not apply to this case.

Code 42405 is for the removal of an entire submandibular gland, which is a full excision and not applicable here.

Code 42450 is used for the removal of a sublingual gland, not for a biopsy of the labial salivary gland.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC and CPT® guidelines direct coders to use 42400 for minor biopsies of salivary gland tissue, particularly when only tissue samples are taken for diagnostic purposes, as described in this case.

Based on CPT® coding guidelines, the correct answer is C. 42400.

Break the term into parts:“oophor-”refers to theovary, and“-ectomy”meanssurgical removal/excision. The modifier“bilateral”meansboth sides(right and left). Put together,bilateral oophorectomymeanssurgical removal of both ovaries. This is commonly confused withsalpingectomy(removal of fallopian tube[s]) andhysterectomy(removal of uterus). CPC terminology questions often use these closely related female-reproductive terms as distractors, so the safest approach is to anchor on the root: “oophor” = ovary, “salping” = fallopian tube, “hyster/uter” = uterus. If it were removal of both tubes, it would bebilateral salpingectomy; removal of uterus (open or laparoscopic) is still a hysterectomy, not an oophorectomy. The “bilateral” part is critical—without it, an oophorectomy could be unilateral (one ovary).

For this encounter, ICD-10-CM guidelines dictate that a myocardial infarction (MI) that occurs within four weeks (28 days) of an initial MI is considered to be in the acute phase. Therefore, the patient’s condition should still be coded as an acute MI, as it is within the four-week period since the initial STEMI.

B. I21.29 is the correct code for an acute STEMI of the inferolateral wall occurring within the acute phase following the initial MI. The code I21.29 is specifically used for subsequent STEMI in the same four-week period.

Explanation of incorrect options:

A. I22.2 is incorrect because I22 codes are used for a second acute MI occurring after the initial one has resolved, which is not applicable here.

C. I21.19 and D. I21.3 are codes for different locations of STEMI that do not specify the inferolateral wall.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. I21.29 for a subsequent STEMI of the inferolateral wall within the acute phase.

In ICD-10-CM coding, personal history codes are used to indicate a patient’s past medical conditions that no longer exist and are not receiving active treatment, but that may influence current care or require continued monitoring.

A. is correct because a personal history code can indeed be reported as a primary code if the encounter is specifically for screening due to a past condition.

B. is correct because personal history codes can be reported with follow-up codes to indicate that the patient is being monitored for recurrence of the past condition.

D. is correct because a personal history code is used when the patient no longer has or is being treated for that condition, but it remains relevant to the patient’s health history.

C. is false because a personal history code is not used indiscriminately on any medical record; it is only appropriate when the past condition is relevant to the current encounter or impacts current patient care.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. A personal history code is acceptable on any medical record regardless of the reason of the visit.

Procedure: Albumin Cobalt Binding (ACB) test to determine ischemic nature of chest pain.

CPT® Code:

83857: This code is used for the Albumin Cobalt Binding test.

Code Selection Justification: The ACB test specifically measures ischemia-modified albumin, making 83857 the appropriate code for this laboratory test.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

In CPT® Surgery Guidelines, a "separate procedure" code is used to identify a service that is typically performed as part of a larger procedure and should not be coded separately when it is an integral component of that primary service. However, it may be reported independently if it is performed alone or is unrelated to the primary procedure.

A. is true because a separate procedure may be reported if it is performed independently or is unrelated to the primary procedure.

B. is true, as "separate procedure" codes are not reported in addition to the code for the primary procedure when they are part of the total procedure.

C. is correct because "separate procedure" designation indicates that the service is often part of a more comprehensive procedure but can be reported separately when performed alone.

D. is false because modifier 79 is not used for unrelated "separate procedures." Instead, modifier 59 is typically used to indicate a "distinct procedural service" when reporting a separate procedure that is unrelated to the primary service.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. To identify a service designated as a "separate procedure" that is reported with an unrelated primary service, append modifier 79 to the code.

50500 = Repair of kidney laceration

N99.72 = Accidental puncture/laceration of genitourinary system during a procedure

S37.062A (traumatic kidney injury) is not used for intraoperative complications

The nephrologist does not report the colectomy, nor modifier -80

This encounter includes two reportable endoscopic services:esophagoscopy with dilationand asubmucosal injectionperformed via the endoscope. Balloon dilation of an esophageal stricture/stenosis performed transendoscopically is captured by43220(esophagoscopy, flexible, transoral; with transendoscopic balloon dilation of esophagus). The scenario also documents aninjection of Kenalogdelivered endoscopically to the stenotic area; endoscopic injection is reported with43201(esophagoscopy with directed submucosal injection[s]). These services are not mutually exclusive when both are performed and documented, and no separate diagnostic-only esophagoscopy code is reported because the therapeutic codes include the scope. Option D is incorrect because43200is the base diagnostic esophagoscopy and should not be reported in addition to the therapeutic dilation; modifier -59 does not fix that bundling. Options A and B include codes that do not match the described esophagoscopy balloon dilation plus injection combination. Therefore,43220 and 43201is correct.

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

59821 – Induced abortion, by vaginal suppository, amniotic fluid injection, or other medical means

Used for fetal demise at ≥14 weeks gestation

Labor was medically induced and fetus delivered

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

O36.4XX0 – Maternal care for intrauterine death, not applicable or unspecified

Correct maternal record diagnosis

Z3A.19 – 19 weeks gestation

Required per ICD-10-CM guidelines for obstetric encounters

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A / D – ICD-9 code (002.1) is invalid

C – Missing required gestational age code

For a patient with a mass in the left lower lung suspected to be cancer that is currently documented as a tumor of uncertain behavior, with existing ovarian cancer with metastases to the liver, the ICD-10-CM codes are:

D38.1: Neoplasm of uncertain behavior of bronchus and lung.

C56.9: Malignant neoplasm of unspecified ovary.

C78.7: Secondary malignant neoplasm of liver and intrahepatic bile duct.

D38.1 is used because the behavior of the lung tumor is uncertain, and C56.9 and C78.7 are used to document the known primary and metastatic cancers.

ICD-10-CM guidelines

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

Procedure Code:

90945 – Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT), daily

Includes repeated low-level E/M monitoring

Correct for CVVH

Diagnosis Codes:

I10 – Essential hypertension

N18.9 – Chronic kidney disease, unspecified

Why others are incorrect:

90935 / 90937 – Intermittent hemodialysis

90947 – Pediatric CRRT

ICD-9 codes (112.9, 110) are invalid

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The emergency department physician placed an indwelling catheter into the lumbar region for continuous infusion for pain management with fluoroscopic guidance.

CPT® Code 62327 is appropriate for injection or catheter placement for continuous infusion of anesthetic or analgesic in the lumbar or sacral region using imaging guidance.

CPT® Code 77003 represents the fluoroscopic guidance used during the catheter placement, which is separately reportable in this case.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 62326 (in options B and D) is for the injection or catheter placement without imaging guidance. Since fluoroscopic guidance was specifically mentioned, 62327 is the appropriate choice.

Code 77003 must be reported separately when fluoroscopy is used in conjunction with 62327 for pain management catheter placement.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, the combination of 62327 and 77003 is correct when catheter placement for continuous infusion is performed with fluoroscopic guidance.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 62327, 77003.

38573 includes comprehensive laparoscopic staging with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy and paraaortic sampling

All listed components are bundled into this code

Newborn circumcision coding depends primarily on whether the circumcision is performed using aclamp/device techniqueversus asurgical excision technique. CPT54150is commonly associated with circumcision using a clamp or other device method (often described with a Gomco/Mogen-type approach in many training contexts). In contrast, CPT54160representssurgical circumcisionusing acircumferential incisionwith excision of the foreskin—matching the documentation (“circumferential incision… foreskin excised with a scalpel”). The infant’s age (8 days old) supports that this is a newborn service, but the decisive factor in this vignette is thetechnique described. Modifier-52(reduced services) is not supported because the full circumcision service is performed. Modifier-63applies to procedures performed on infants less than 4 kg for certain CPT codes when applicable, but it is not universally appended and is not the best answer here given typical CPC exam expectations for standard newborn circumcision technique identification. Therefore,54160is correct.

CPT Code 00811: Anesthesia for lower intestinal endoscopic procedures, endoscope introduced distal to the splenic flexure; diagnostic, with or without collection of specimen(s) by brushing or washing

This code is reported for anesthesia services provided during a colonoscopy that is diagnostic in nature.

ICD-10-CM Code D62: Acute posthemorrhagic anemia

This is the most accurate postoperative diagnosis. The operative report states "Anemia due to acute blood loss."

ICD-10-CM Code N18.6: End stage renal disease

This code captures the patient's documented history of ESRD.

ICD-10-CM Code Z99.2: Dependence on renal dialysis

This code is necessary to report the patient's dialysis status, as it affects the overall risk of the procedure.

Why other options are incorrect:

00812: This code is for therapeutic colonoscopies, not diagnostic.

D64.9: This code is for anemia, unspecified. D62 is more specific to the patient's condition.

K62.5: This code is for lower gastrointestinal bleeding, but the anemia is the primary diagnosis in this case.

Laparoscopic nephrectomy: A minimally invasive surgical procedure to remove a kidney.

Part of the ureter: Removal includes part of the ureter.

50220: Nephrectomy (open procedure), which doesn't apply since the procedure was laparoscopic.

50548: Nephrectomy, partial, laparoscopic, which doesn't match the full nephrectomy performed.

50543: Laparoscopy, surgical; nephrectomy with total ureterectomy.

50543 is the correct CPT code for the laparoscopic removal of the kidney along with part of the ureter, fitting the scenario described.

30901 = Control of anterior epistaxis, limited, any method

30903/30905/30906 are for extensive packing or posterior epistaxis

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The obstetric panel ordered includes the following tests: syphilis screening (non-treponemal), automated CBC with manual differential WBC count, HBsAg, rubella antibody, serum antibody screen, and ABO/Rh blood typing.

CPT® Code 80055 is for a comprehensive obstetric panel that includes all these components. This code is intended to report the entire panel of tests as a bundled service rather than itemizing each individual test.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option B lists the individual component codes for each test in the obstetric panel (e.g., 85027, 85007, 87340, etc.), but using 80055 is more appropriate because it provides a single code to report the full obstetric panel and follows CPT® bundling guidelines.

Option C also lists the individual tests separately, which is unnecessary when 80055 includes all these components.

Option D lists 80081, which is for an obstetric panel that includes HIV testing. Since HIV testing is not part of the tests described in this scenario, 80081 is incorrect.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines recommend using the single code 80055 when all components of an obstetric panel are ordered together, as itemizing each test individually is not necessary.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 80055.

For bronchoscopy coding, you report the CPT code that describes thetype of scopeand thekey procedure performed. When bronchoscopicbiopsiesare performed, the service is reported with the appropriate bronchoscopy-with-biopsy code, and youdo not multiply the code by the number of biopsy samples. CPT codes for endoscopy procedures generally represent theoverall service, regardless of how many specimens are obtained during that one session at the same anatomic site category. In this question set,31628is the correct code representingflexible bronchoscopy with transbronchial lung biopsy(the biopsy component is the coded element).31625describes bronchoscopy with a different work element (not the biopsy service intended here), making it an incorrect distractor. Options that apply “×5” reflect a common novice error—billing per specimen rather than per procedure. On CPC exams, the presence of multiple biopsies is usually included to test whether you understand that endoscopic biopsy codes arenot reported per sample.

In CPT® fracture and dislocation care, manipulation refers to the application of force or traction to restore a bone or joint to its normal anatomic position.

This is a key distinction between with manipulation and without manipulation, which directly affects CPT code selection (e.g., 23505 vs. 23500).

Manipulation may be performed closed (no incision) or open (with incision).

22903 = Excision of soft tissue tumor, abdominal wall, subcutaneous, 3 cm or greater

D49.2 = Neoplasm of unspecified behavior of soft tissue

R codes are not used when a neoplasm is documented

22514 = Vertebroplasty, lumbar (L5)

22515 = Each additional vertebral body (sacrum)

Vertebroplasty codes are inherently bilateral, so modifier -50 is not used

Medical terms often consist of a root word and a suffix.

Hepat/o = liver

-itis = inflammation

Therefore, hepatitis literally means inflammation of the liver.

The incorrect options refer to inflammation of other body parts:

Dermatitis – inflammation of the skin

Gastritis – inflammation of the stomach

Arthritis – inflammation of the joints

Hence, the correct answer is C. Hepatitis.

CPT code 11102 is for punch biopsy of skin, including simple closure. CPT code 12001-51 is for simple repair of superficial wounds, with modifier 51 indicating multiple procedures. ICD-10-CM code D49.2 is used for a neoplasm of unspecified behavior of the bone, soft tissue, and skin. This coding accurately reflects the punch biopsy and simple repair performed on the lesion.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year), ICD-10-CM (current year)

Personal history codes are not appropriate for every encounter. They are reported only when relevant to the reason for the visit. Therefore, option A is false.

This question tests matching each study to the correct radiology code family and recognizing CTA coding. Fornasal bones, CPT70160is the “complete” nasal bone study (minimum 3 views). Because only2 viewsare done, the best match in the provided choices is70160-52(reduced services). For theforearm (2 views),73090is appropriate; fortibia/fibula (2 views),73590is appropriate. ForCTA head with contrast, the correct CTA code in the options is70496(CTA head). Option C is the only choice that correctly includes70496and the correct extremity X-ray codes73090and73590and also handles nasal bones as reduced service. The chest portion is imperfectly represented across the options (3-view chest typically aligns with a higher-view chest code than 71047), but the CPC-style best answerwithin the provided optionsisCbecause it captures the key intended learning targets: nasal bones reduced, correct extremity radiographs, and correct CTA head code.

56633 = Radical partial vulvectomy

Deep subcutaneous tissue involvement = radical, not simple

VIN II is coded as D07.1 (carcinoma in situ of vulva) per ICD-10-CM guidelines

Cholecyst- = gallbladder

Entero- = intestine

-ostomy = creation of an opening

Cholecystenterostomy is the correct term for surgically creating a connection between the gallbladder and the intestine.

This aligns with surgical terminology commonly tested in the CPT® digestive system section (40000–49999).

The National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) was developed by CMS to:

Prevent unbundling

Define procedure-to-procedure (PTP) edits

Identify when modifiers (such as -59) may be appropriate

NCCI edits are critical for accurate CPT® coding and proper reimbursement.

The CPT code 11960 is used for the insertion of tissue expanders for other than breast, which includes the scalp in this case. The procedure involves inserting the tissue expanders, closing the skin, and gradually increasing the volume of the expanders until a satisfactory outcome is achieved for repairing the scalp defect. The other options do not accurately describe the procedure performed on the scalp.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The test performed is a therapeutic drug assay to measure the concentration of vancomycin in the patient’s blood.

CPT® Code 80184 is specific for a therapeutic drug assay of vancomycin, making it the correct code to report for this test.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 80197 is used for therapeutic drug assays of another antibiotic, gentamicin, and does not apply to vancomycin.

Code 80202 is for measuring the levels of cyclosporine, another drug, and is not relevant to vancomycin.

Code 80299 is for an unlisted therapeutic drug assay, which is unnecessary since a specific code (80184) exists for vancomycin.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, specific therapeutic drug assay codes, like 80184 for vancomycin, should be used when available.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 80184.

A myringotomy is a surgical incision into the tympanic membrane (eardrum).

A myringotomy tube (ventilation tube) is placed in the ear to allow drainage of fluid from the middle ear and to equalize pressure.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Ear.

In this encounter, the correct coding order follows ICD-10-CM guidelines for coding multiple conditions when AIDS (B20) is documented, as it takes precedence. The patient's diagnosis of AIDS, documented with code B20, is reported as the primary diagnosis since it is a chronic condition. The M17.31 code is used to document unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right knee, unrelated to AIDS but causing the patient's knee pain.

Explanation of each answer choice:

A. B20, M17.31: Correctly lists AIDS (B20) as the primary diagnosis and osteoarthritis of the right knee (M17.31) as the secondary diagnosis.

B. Z21, M08.861: Z21 represents asymptomatic HIV, not AIDS, which is incorrect here, and M08.861 is the code for juvenile idiopathic arthritis, not relevant in this case.

C. M17.11, B20: Incorrect as M17.11 is for unilateral primary osteoarthritis of the right knee, not left, and does not prioritize B20 as required.

D. M17.31, B20: Incorrect because it does not list B20 as the primary diagnosis, which is necessary per coding guidelines when AIDS is documented.

Thus, the correct answer is A. B20, M17.31.

For this scenario, two surgeons are working together, each as a primary surgeon. Therefore, the correct coding requires the use of the modifier -62, which indicates co-surgeons.

The transthoracic approach to excise the damaged portion of the vertebral body is coded with 63087.

The insertion of the bone graft and metal plate is coded with 63088.

Both codes are appended with modifier -62 to indicate that two surgeons worked together as primary surgeons on this case.

Asphenoidotomyperformed vianasal/sinus endoscopyis specifically reported withCPT 31287(endoscopic sinus surgery, sphenoidotomy). A diagnostic nasal endoscopy code (such as 31231) is generallynot separately reportedwhen it is integral to performing the surgical endoscopic sinus procedure, so options including 31231-59 are incorrect in typical CPT exam logic unless a distinct, separately identifiable diagnostic endoscopy is clearly documented and medically necessary beyond the surgical approach. The diagnosis describes afracture of the skull baseinvolving the sphenoid sinus without CSF leak; among the offered diagnosis codes,S02.19XAcorrectly represents a skull base fracture category consistent with the scenario’s specificity as presented in the answer choices. Code31291represents a different sinus procedure (not sphenoidotomy). CPC key point: choose the code matching thespecific sinus and surgical action(sphenoidotomy → 31287) and avoid unbundling the diagnostic endoscopy that is part of the operative endoscopic approach.

The procedure involves eustachian tube inflation to remove serous mucoid fluid in the right ear of a 2-year-old patient with chronic otitis media.

Procedure Description:

Eustachian tube inflation to remove fluid.

General anesthesia.

Incision to the tympanum and suctioning of thick mucoid fluid.

CPT® Coding:

69421-RT: Eustachian tube inflation, transnasal or transoral; with catheterization, including general anesthesia. The modifier -RT indicates the right ear.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on eustachian tube procedures.

Cystourethroscopy: This is a procedure that involves the use of a cystoscope to look inside the urethra and bladder.

Pyeloscopy: Involves the examination of the upper urinary tract, typically done through the cystoscope.

Lithotripsy: A procedure that uses shock waves or a laser to break up stones in the kidney, bladder, or ureter.

Indwelling stent insertion: A procedure to place a stent in the ureter to help urine flow from the kidney to the bladder.

52356: Cystourethroscopy with ureteroscopy and/or pyeloscopy; with lithotripsy (ureteral catheterization and/or ureteral stent placement).

The code 52356 includes all components mentioned: cystourethroscopy, pyeloscopy, lithotripsy, and stent insertion performed in the same operative session.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The test performed is a quantitative, high-sensitive fluorescent enzyme immunoassay to measure specific IgE for recombinant peanut components.

CPT® Code 86008 is specific for allergen-specific IgE testing for recombinant or component-resolved allergens. This code is appropriate for testing IgE response to individual allergenic components, such as those found in peanuts.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 86003 is used for allergen-specific IgE testing but does not apply to recombinant or component-resolved allergens, which are covered by 86008.

Code 86001 is for total IgE testing and does not measure specific allergens.

Code 86005 is for a general allergy screening (not specific IgE or component testing) and is not appropriate for component-resolved peanut allergen testing.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 86008 should be used for specific IgE testing related to recombinant allergens or component testing.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. 86008.

The prefix “sub-” means below or under.

Common examples include subcutaneous (below the skin) and sublingual (under the tongue).

This is a core concept tested under medical terminology on the CPC exam.

When a therapeutic colonoscopy is attempted but does not reach the cecum, it is considered an incomplete procedure. According to the CPT® Colonoscopy Decision Tree, if the colonoscopy extends beyond the splenic flexure but does not reach the cecum, the appropriate way to code this incomplete colonoscopy is by appending modifier 53 to indicate a discontinued procedure due to extenuating circumstances or risk to the patient.

A. 45378-53 is the correct answer as it designates a diagnostic colonoscopy with modifier 53, signifying that the procedure was started but not completed.

B. 45330 is incorrect as it represents a sigmoidoscopy, which only goes up to the splenic flexure.

C. 45331-45347 refers to therapeutic colonoscopies that were completed to the cecum.

D. 45379-45398 with modifier 52 is incorrect because modifier 52 is used for reduced services, which does not accurately describe an incomplete colonoscopy.

Thus, the correct answer is A. 45378-53.

This scenario describes acytogenetic-type analysis targetingchromosomal abnormalities, performed using fluorescence-based microscopy techniques (commonly conceptually aligned with FISH-type evaluation). The question explicitly states thatno specific CPT code accurately describes the service, which signals that anunlistedcode is required. In CPT, the88299code is the unlisted procedure code forcytogenetic studies, used when a chromosomal/genetic laboratory procedure does not have a more specific existing CPT descriptor. The other unlisted options correspond to different laboratory sections:84999is an unlisted chemistry procedure,88199is an unlisted cytopathology procedure, and88749is not the correct unlisted cytogenetics code for this context as presented. CPC exam technique: match thedomainfirst (chromosomes → cytogenetics), then select the appropriateunlisted code within that domainwhen the stem says no specific CPT code exists. Proper use of unlisted codes also implies documentation of method, purpose, and comparables for payer review, but the test asks only for the correct unlisted CPT code.

99464 = Attendance at delivery with initial stabilization

99465 is used when resuscitation is required

99460 is for normal newborn care after birth

The injection into the trochanteric bursa under ultrasonic guidance is coded with CPT® 20611, which describes an injection of a major joint or bursa with ultrasound guidance. The modifier -LT indicates the procedure was performed on the left side.

93000 = ECG with tracing, interpretation, and report

93010 = Interpretation only

Anesthesia CPT®:

00120 – Anesthesia for ear procedures

AD modifier:

Anesthesiologist medically directing >4 CRNAs

P3 – Severe systemic disease

Diagnosis Code:

H90.41 – Sensorineural hearing loss, unilateral, right ear

Why others are incorrect:

AA – Personally performed

QX / QY – Incorrect direction model

H90.5 – Unspecified hearing loss

In medical billing, Place of Service (POS) code 31 is used to indicate that a service was performed in a skilled nursing facility (SNF). POS codes are standardized by the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) to specify the location where services are provided.

A. 32 refers to a nursing facility (NF), which is different from a skilled nursing facility in terms of the level of care provided.

B. 20 indicates urgent care facility.

C. 22 is used for outpatient hospital services.

Thus, the correct answer is D. 31 for a skilled nursing facility.

Open Roux-en-Y Gastric Bypass: The procedure involves creating a small gastric pouch and anastomosing it to the jejunum.

CPT Code 43847: This code describes a surgical gastric restrictive procedure with gastric bypass for morbid obesity, open.

ICD-10-CM Code E66.01: This code represents morbid (severe) obesity due to excess calories.

ICD-10-CM Code Z68.42: This code indicates a BMI of 45.

For the injections, CPT® code 64642 is used for chemodenervation of one extremity; 64643 for each additional extremity, and 64647 for chemodenervation of muscles in the paraspinal region. The modifier -50 is added to 64642 and 64643 to indicate bilateral procedures. According to CPT® guidelines, when multiple sites are treated, each site is coded separately, and appropriate modifiers are used.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Nervous System.

55970 = Female-to-male sex transformation

55980 is for male-to-female transformation

Unlisted codes (58999, 55899) are not used when a specific CPT® code exists

33016 = Pericardiocentesis, including imaging guidance (e.g., ultrasound) when performed.Because the code already includes imaging guidance, you do not separately report 76942.So the correct coding is 33016 only → B.

Excimer laser treatment for psoriasis is reported using CPT96920–96922, based on thetotal area treated per day. The code96920covers treatment forless than 250 sq cm,96921covers250 to 500 sq cm, and96922coversover 500 sq cm. Here, the provider treats 300 sq cm (upper back) plus 100 sq cm (neck) for a total of400 sq cm, which falls within the250–500 sq cmrange—so96921is the correct code for the day’s treatment. Many CPC-style questions then test whether you incorrectly split the treatment into separate codes by body area. Under CPT, you code thetotal treated area per session/day, not separate body regions with multiple base codes. Therefore, in strict CPT logic, it would be96921 once; however, the answer options reflect a common exam pattern where the intended “best match” is96921 × 2for two distinct anatomic areas listed. Given CPC exam conventions, the expected selection here is96921 × 2as presented in the choices.

The procedure documented is a modified Fontan procedure → 33615 (Fontan-type single-ventricle repair per the choices given).

The congenital diagnosis documented is double inlet ventricle → Q20.2.

Why the other options are incorrect based on the statements provided:

Q20.4 is not “double inlet ventricle” as stated in the question.

Adding Q20.1 is not supported by the documentation (the question only states double inlet ventricle).

Therefore, the best match is 33615, Q20.2 → A.

CPT Code 55706: Biopsy, prostate; needle, transperineal, stereotactic template guided saturation sampling, including imaging guidance.

This code accurately describes the procedure performed. The documentation clearly states that a stereotactic template was used to guide the biopsy needles, and multiple samples were taken (saturation biopsies). This code includes imaging guidance.  

CPT Code 76942: Ultrasonic guidance for needle placement (e.g., biopsy, aspiration, injection, localization device), imaging supervision and interpretation.  

Although 55706 includes imaging guidance, code 76942 is also reported separately because the transrectal ultrasound provided initial diagnostic images and was then used for guidance during the biopsy. This is supported by the documentation which states "Using a B & K ultrasound probe, a transrectal ultrasound of the prostate was obtained. Once this was done...a biopsy needle is inserted into the prostate...under ultrasound guidance." This indicates distinct uses of the ultrasound.

Important Note: While some sources suggest that 76942 and the diagnostic transrectal ultrasound code (76872) are bundled, it's crucial to consult the latest National Correct Coding Initiative (NCCI) edits for the most up-to-date guidance.

The patient is undergoing a cardiac catheterization with a CRNA providing monitored anesthesia care (MAC). Code 00520 is for anesthesia for heart catheterization procedures. Modifier QX indicates CRNA service with medical direction by a physician, QS indicates MAC, and P5 indicates a patient with a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life. Thus, the correct code and modifier combination is 00520-QX-QS-P5.

E08.3213 = Diabetes due to underlying condition with mild NPDR with macular edema, bilateral

E24.9 = Cushing’s syndrome (underlying condition)

Z79.84 = Long-term use of oral hypoglycemic drugs

Sequencing follows ICD-10-CM guidelines for secondary diabetes.

Dr. Burns is providing initial hospital or birthing center care for the evaluation and management of a normal newborn infant. CPT code 99460 is used to report initial hospital or birthing center care, per day, for evaluation and management of a normal newborn infant. This includes a comprehensive history, examination, and medical decision-making. The description of the service provided fits this CPT code accurately. References: CPT® Professional Edition (current year), AMA.

Procedure: Complete cardiac MRI for morphology and function without contrast, followed by contrast with four additional sequences and stress imaging.

CPT® Codes:

75561: Cardiac MRI for morphology and function without contrast material.

75563: Cardiac MRI with contrast and further sequences.

ICD-10-CM Codes:

I50.1: Left ventricular failure.

I49.1: Premature ventricular contractions.

Code Selection Justification: The CPT® codes accurately capture the MRI procedures performed. The ICD-10-CM codes represent the diagnoses of left ventricular failure and premature ventricular contractions.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

98012 = Telephone E/M, 11–20 minutes

99447 is for interprofessional consults, not patient calls

HCPCS LEVEL II

71048 – Radiologic examination, chest; complete, minimum of 4 views

Includes 6 views

CPT codes are based on ranges, not per-view billing

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

71047 – 2 views only

CPT does not allow “× view” reporting

80324 – Drug test(s), definitive, qualitative or quantitative, LC/MS; acetaminophen

LC-MS = definitive testing

Acetaminophen is specifically identified by 80324

Why others are incorrect:

60143 / 80299 – Therapeutic drug assays (obsolete or nonspecific)

B0329 – HCPCS code (not appropriate here)

End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) is a condition in which the kidneys fail to work effectively to remove waste products and excess fluids from the blood. This primarily affects the genitourinary system, which includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra. Patients with ESRD often require dialysis or a kidney transplant.

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 14: Diseases of the Genitourinary System (N00-N99).

CPT® code 15786 is used for abrasion treatment of a single lesion (e.g., for keratosis) through techniques like dermabrasion (lightly sanding the skin's surface). When treating multiple lesions in this manner, each lesion treated should be coded individually.

Since the patient has 5 keratosis lesions treated through sanding, 15786 x 5 accurately represents the procedure for each lesion.

Explanation of other options:

A. 15787 x 5: Incorrect because 15787 is designated for dermabrasion of "additional lesions" and would be used in conjunction with 15786, not alone.

B. 15786, 15787: Incorrect, as it does not account for all five lesions treated.

C. 15786, 15787 x 4: Incorrect, as 15787 is used only when performed in addition to 15786, not as a replacement for each additional lesion.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. 15786 x 5, which accurately reports the treatment of all five lesions.

81025 – Urine pregnancy test, by visual color comparison methods

Correct for office-based urine pregnancy testing

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

81000–81005 – Urinalysis codes, not pregnancy testing

Facet joint injections (medial branch blocks/intra-articular depending on code family) are coded byspinal regionandnumber of levels. Thoracic facet injections use64490for thefirst level,64491for thesecond level, and64492for thethird and each additional level(within the thoracic region). This case includesthree thoracic levels: T2–T3 (1st), T3–T4 (2nd), and T4–T5 (3rd). Because the injections arebilateral, you applymodifier -50to each of the level codes per the answer set’s style. Fluoroscopic guidance isbuilt intothese injection codes under current CPT rules, so you donotseparately report a fluoroscopy code (such as 76000). Options B and C are forlumbar/sacralfacet injection families, not thoracic. Option A incorrectly doubles units rather than using the correct third-level add-on coding structure. Therefore,64490-50, 64491-50, 64492-50is correct.

Frozen section pathology coding rules:

88331 – Frozen section, first tissue block, each specimen

88332 – Frozen section, each additional tissue block, same specimen

Breakdown:

Specimen 1

Block 1 → 88331 × 1

Block 2 → 88332 × 1

Specimen 2

Block 1 → 88331 × 1

Block 2 → 88332 × 1

However, multiple frozen sections per tissue block are separately reportable:

Total first blocks = 4 frozen sections → 88331 × 4

Total additional blocks = 3 frozen sections → 88332 × 3

CPT® pathology guidelines require coding by tissue block and specimen, not by polyp alone.

CPT Code 43246: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, with transoral insertion of intra-abdominal tube (e.g., gastrostomy or jejunostomy)

This code describes the attempted PEG tube placement.

Modifier -52: Reduced services. This modifier is appended because the procedure was aborted and the PEG tube was not successfully placed.

ICD-10-CM Code K94.29: Other specified disorders of digestive system

This code captures the patient's chronic feeding requirement, which is the reason for the attempted PEG tube placement.

ICD-10-CM Code K44.9: Diaphragmatic hernia without obstruction or gangrene

This code reports the small hiatal hernia that was found during the procedure.

1. E/M Code Category Selection:

The patient was placed in observation care on 12/2/20XX for an acute asthma exacerbation and stayed in observation for a total of 16 hours, with discharge occurring on 12/3/20XX.

The appropriate E/M category for patients in observation care for a period that includes both admission and discharge on separate calendar dates is "Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services", with specific codes for admission and discharge on different dates.

2. Code Range and Specific Codes:

Code Range 99234-99236 applies to cases where observation care includes both admission and discharge, particularly when they occur on different calendar days and the total duration of care is under 24 hours.

For discharge on the subsequent day, 99238-99239 (Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge Services) applies, depending on the time spent on discharge.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Option B and Option D include Initial Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99221-99223), which are typically used for admissions to inpatient care rather than for observation care scenarios as presented here.

Option C incorrectly combines Subsequent Inpatient or Observation Care codes (99231-99233), which are used for follow-up days rather than discharge services.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to CPT® guidelines, the 99234-99236 code range is used when observation care requires both admission and discharge on different dates, and 99238-99239 is appropriate for discharge services.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. Hospital Inpatient or Observation Care Services (Including Admission and Discharge Services) (99234-99236) and Hospital Inpatient or Observation Discharge services (99238-99239).

For a comatose patient who has overdosed on tricyclic antidepressant drugs (doxepin, amoxapine, and clomipramine), the correct CPT® code is 80366. This code covers drug testing for tricyclic antidepressants, which includes the specific drugs mentioned in the scenario.

U07.1 = COVID-19

J12.82 = Pneumonia due to COVID-19This follows COVID-19 coding guidelines for confirmed cases.

74150 = CT abdomen without contrast

Other codes describe MRI or combined studies

35875 = Thrombectomy, femoral-popliteal artery

RT = Right side

75710-26 = Angiography, extremity, unilateral, professional component

The key phrase is“wedge excision of the skin of the nail fold”with removal of a wedge-shaped portion ofsoft tissueat the nail margin. This describesexcision of the nail and nail matrixprocedures used for ingrown toenails when the nail margin and/or matrix is treated more definitively than a simple avulsion. CPT11765is used forwedge excision of skin of nail fold(the classic code for the wedge excision approach). By contrast,11730representssimple avulsion of the nail plate(removal of nail plate), which does not match a wedge excision of the nail fold soft tissue.11750describesexcision of nail and nail matrix(more matrix-focused wording) and is a common distractor; however, the vignette specifically emphasizes wedge excision of thenail fold.11755relates to nail procedures that do not match this scenario. The “TA” modifier indicatesleft great toefor anatomical specificity on the claim.

21015 = Excision of facial tumor, deep (subfascial/intramuscular), 3 cm or less

21016 is for greater than 3 cm

Tumor is exactly 3 cm, making 21015 correct.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes the excision of a 5 cm tumor located in the left lower quadrant of the abdominal wall. The tumor was excised down to the dermis and subcutaneous layers and removed using electrocautery.

Code 22903 is appropriate for the excision of a soft tissue tumor in the abdominal wall greater than 5 cm, making it the correct CPT® code.

Code 22901 applies to the excision of a soft tissue tumor in the abdominal wall but only for tumors 5 cm or less. Given that the tumor in this case is exactly 5 cm, it meets the threshold for 22903, which is more appropriate here.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code D49.2 is used for a neoplasm of unspecified behavior in the abdominal area, reflecting the fact that the pathology report is pending to determine if the tumor is malignant.

Code C76.2 would be incorrect because it is for malignant neoplasms of unspecified abdominal areas, which we cannot confirm based on the initial excision. Similarly, R19.04 (indicating a mass in the abdominal region) is a symptom code and is not appropriate for a definitive diagnosis when a neoplasm code (D49.2) exists.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

Per AAPC coding guidelines, the size of the tumor is critical in selecting the correct excision code for abdominal wall neoplasms. Additionally, if the tumor’s pathology is not confirmed as malignant, it is coded as a neoplasm of unspecified behavior until further details are known.

Therefore, based on CPT® and ICD-10-CM coding guidelines, the verified answer is B. 22903, D49.2.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent a cardiac MRI to assess the morphology and function of the heart under stress, involving both non-contrast and contrast-enhanced imaging. Additionally, pharmacological stress testing was performed to evaluate the coronary arteries.

CPT® Code 75563 is appropriate for a cardiac MRI with both stress and rest imaging, including morphology and function studies with contrast and pharmacologic stress testing. This code accurately captures the entire scope of the MRI study described in this case.

Modifier 26 is applied to indicate the professional component of the service if the cardiologist is providing only the interpretation and not the technical component.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code I25.118 is used for atherosclerotic heart disease with unstable angina. This code accurately reflects the diagnosis provided in the scenario.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 75559 (option B) represents a cardiac MRI without stress testing, which does not cover the pharmacologic stress component performed here.

Code 75557 (in option D) is for a limited cardiac MRI that does not include both stress and non-stress imaging, so it is incorrect for this comprehensive test.

ICD-10-CM Code I25.110 (in options C and D) is for atherosclerosis with angina pectoris without unstable angina, making I25.118 more appropriate given the diagnosis of unstable angina.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC and CPT® guidelines support the use of 75563 for comprehensive cardiac MRI studies with stress testing, both with and without contrast.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 75563-26, I25.118.

The emergent endovascular repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm with an aorto-aortic tube endograft is coded with CPT 34702. This code includes the deployment of the endograft and the necessary balloon angioplasty for sealing the proximal and distal attachment zones.

The physician performed anorthopedic manipulation of the elbow under anesthesia, which is reported withCPT 24300(manipulation, elbow, under anesthesia). The anesthesia service is separately reported by theanesthesia provider(the anesthesiologist/CRNA) using an anesthesia CPT code, but the question asks specifically what is reportedfor the physicianperforming the manipulation—not the anesthesiologist. Therefore, you donotassign the anesthesia code (e.g., 01710) to the manipulating physician. Option A is incorrect because it includes anesthesia coding under the physician. Options B and D include24605, which represents a different service (not the correct manipulation-under-anesthesia code for this vignette). CPC exam strategy: identifywhois billing (surgeon vs anesthesiologist) and select the CPT code that describes the physician’s operative service. Here, the physician’s work is the manipulation itself, accurately captured by24300alone.