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CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

An organization is considering options to outsource their Information Technology (IT) operations. Although they do not sell anything on the Internet, they have a strong requirement in uptime of their application. After evaluating the offerings received by the Cloud Service Provider (CSP), the IT manager decided it was mandatory to develop processes to continue operations without access to community or public cloud-based applications. Which of the following arguments MOST likely led the IT manager to make this decision?

Options:

A.

Circumstances may force a cloud provider to discontinue operations

B.

Most cloud service offerings are unique to each provider and may not be easily portable

C.

Integrity and confidentiality are not ensured properly on most cloud service offerings

D.

The need to develop alternative hosting strategies for applications deployed to the cloud

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Questions 5

Which of the following tools is used to evaluate the impact that a production plan has on capacity?

Options:

A.

Demand time fence (DTF)

B.

Bill of resources

C.

Product routing

D.

Safety capacity

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Questions 6

A security engineer must address resource sharing between various applications without adding physical hardware to the environment. Which secure design principle is used to BEST segregate applications?

Options:

A.

Network firewalls

B.

Logical isolation

C.

Application firewalls

D.

Physical isolation

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Questions 7

An organization’s computer incident responses team PRIMARY responds to which type of control?

Options:

A.

Administrative

B.

Detective

C.

Corrective

D.

presentative

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Questions 8

Which of the following BEST represents a security benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

Improved threat detection

B.

Flexible firewall configuration

C.

Network availability

D.

Improved threat prevention

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Questions 9

Which of the following MUST be checked during the validation of software verification capabilities?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Completeness

C.

Vulnerabilities

D.

Logic

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Questions 10

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing an Identity And Management (IAM) solution?

Options:

A.

List and evaluate IAM available products.

B.

Evaluate business needs.

C.

Engage the sponsor and identify Key stakeholders.

D.

Engage the existing Information Technology (IT) environment.

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Questions 11

Which of the following Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) components provides the MOST confidentiality for the information that is being transmitted?

Options:

A.

Authentication Header (AH)

B.

Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE)

C.

Encapsulation Security Payload

D.

Internet Key Exchange (IKE)

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Questions 12

Fishbone diagrams would help a service organization determine:

Options:

A.

the proper level of service for a customer segment.

B.

the source of a quality-of-service issue.

C.

differences in the performance of employees.

D.

the decomposition of customer return rates with seasonality.

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Questions 13

What FIRST step should a newly appointed Data Protection Officer (DPO) take to develop an organization's regulatory compliance policy?

Options:

A.

Draft an organizational policy on retention for approval.

B.

Ensure that periodic data governance compliance meetings occur.

C.

Understand applicable laws, regulations, and policies with regard to the data.

D.

Determine the classification of each data type.

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Questions 14

Which of the following are steps involved in the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Dissemination, review, revocation

B.

Dissemination, rotation, revocation

C.

Provisioning, review, revocation

D.

Provisioning, Dissemination, revocation

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Questions 15

A security engineer needs to perform threat modeling on a microprocessor design for an Internet of Things (IoT) application. Using the MITRE Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE) catalog for hardware, a risk analysis is performed. What kind of threat modeling approach would be BEST to identify entry points into the system based on motivation?

Options:

A.

System centric

B.

Attacker centric

C.

Threat centric

D.

Asset centric

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Questions 16

Which of the following are compromised in an untrusted network using public key cryptography when a digitally signed message is modified without being detected?

Options:

A.

Integrity and authentication

B.

Integrity and non-repuditation

C.

Integrity and availability

D.

Confidentiality and availability

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Questions 17

A contractor hacked into an unencrypted session on an organization's wireless network. Which authentication configuration is MOST likely to have enabled this?

Options:

A.

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

B.

Captive web portal

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

D.

Token authentication

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Questions 18

A new organization building is being designed and the security manager has been asked for input on needed security requirements. Which of the following controls are MOST applicable to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Deterrent controls, such as signs announcing video cameras and alarms, are installed.

B.

Preventative controls, such as Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and security guards, are used.

C.

Preventative controls, such as Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and mechanical locks, are used.

D.

Deterrent controls, such as signs announcing video cameras and alarms, are installed.

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Questions 19

What is the PRIMARY benefit an organization obtains by adapting a cybersecurity framework to their cybersecurity program?

Options:

A.

A structured risk management process

B.

A common set of security capabilities

C.

A structured cybersecurity program

D.

A common language and methodology

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Questions 20

The development team wants new commercial software to integrate into the current system. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

B.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

C.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

D.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

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Questions 21

Which of the following represents the level of confidence that software is free from intentional an accidental vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Due care

B.

Vulnerability management

C.

Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

D.

Software assurance

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Questions 22

Components of an organization's Immediate industry and competitive environment Include:

Options:

A.

political factors.

B.

interest rates.

C.

substitute products.

D.

sociocultural forces.

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Questions 23

Which of the following may authorize an organization to monitor an employee’s company computer and phone usage?

Options:

A.

Signed Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)

B.

Signed Acceptable Use Policy (AUP)

C.

ISC2 Code of Ethics

D.

Suspicious that a crime is being committed

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Questions 24

A recent email-based malware breakout caused a significant volume of traffic and password spam account lockouts for an organization. Which BEST identifies compromised devices?

Options:

A.

Security Information And Event Management (SIEM)

B.

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

C.

Vulnerability scan

D.

Penetration test

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Questions 25

Which of the following procedures should be defined when establishing information and asset handling requirements?

Options:

A.

Asset retention procedures

B.

Software patching procedures

C.

Media disposal procedures

D.

User access procedures

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Questions 26

The project manager for a new application development is building a test framework. It has been agreed that the framework will Include penetration testing; however, the project manager is keen to identify any flaws prior to the code being ready for execution. Which of the following techniques BEST supports this requirement?

Options:

A.

System vulnerability scans

B.

Database injection tests

C.

System reliability tests

D.

Static source code analysis

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Questions 27

To mitigate risk related to natural disasters, an organization has a separate location with systems and communications in place. Data must be restored on the remote systems before they are ready for use. What type of remote site is this?

Options:

A.

Cold Site

B.

Mobile Site

C.

Hot Site

D.

Warm Sit

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Questions 28

An organization is transitioning from a traditional server-centric infrastructure to a cloud-based Infrastructure. Shortly after the transition, a major breach occurs to the organization's databases. In an Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS) model, who would be held responsible for the breach?

Options:

A.

The database vendor

B.

The third-party auditor

C.

The organization

D.

The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

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Questions 29

An organization experienced multiple compromises of endpoints, leading to breaches of systems and data. In updating its strategy to defend against these threats, which of the following BEST considers the organization’s needs?

Options:

A.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

B.

Zero Trust (ZT) threat modeling

C.

Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, and Vulnerability Evaluation (OCTAVE)

D.

Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis (PASTA)

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Questions 30

The Information Technology (IT) manager of a large organization has been tasked with implementing a distributed third-party Identity As A Service (IDaaS). The local security team is concerned that the Identity Provider (IdP) and resource provider have direct connectivity outside of enterprise control. Which of the following authentication methods BEST address this concern?

Options:

A.

Federation authorities access list

B.

Manual registration

C.

Proxied federation

D.

Signed assertion

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Questions 31

When performing threat modeling using Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE), which of the following is an example of a repudiation threat?

Options:

A.

Using someone else's account

B.

Distributed Denial-Of-Service (DDoS)

C.

SQL Injection (SQLi)

D.

Modifying a file

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Questions 32

An organization’s security team is looking at ways to minimize the security risk of the container infrastructure. The lead engineer needs to select a suite of remediation actions to minimize risks. Which programmatic approach will result in preventing, detecting , and responding to the GREATEST number of threats aimed at container operations?

Options:

A.

Use of hardware-based countermeasures to provide a basis for trusted computing

B.

Use of container-aware runtime defense tools

C.

Grouping containers with the same sensitivity level on a single host

D.

Adoption of container-specific vulnerability management tools

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Questions 33

Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer is concerned with Denial-Of-Service (DoS) SYN flood attacks?

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Physical

C.

Network

D.

Transport

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Questions 34

A company decided not to pursue a business opportunity In a foreign market due to political Instability and currency fluctuations. Which risk control strategy did this business utilize?

Options:

A.

Mitigation

B.

Prevention

C.

Recovery

D.

Wait and see

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements is true about the meantime between failures (MTBF) measure?

Options:

A.

It is used for non-repairable products.

B.

An increase in MTBF is proportional to anincrease inquality.

C.

It is a useful measure of reliability.

D.

It is the same as operating life or service life.

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Questions 36

What can help a security professional assess and mitigate vulnerabilities of an embedded device?

Options:

A.

Conduct black-box testing.

B.

Conduct red-box testing.

C.

Conduct yellow-box testing.

D.

Conduct green-box testing.

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Questions 37

The time spent In queue by a specific manufacturing job is determined by which of the following factors related to the order?

Options:

A.

Lot size

B.

Priority

C.

Setup time

D.

Run time

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Questions 38

An organization is considering options to outsource their Information Technology (IT) operations. Although they do not sell anything on the Internet, they have a strong requirement in uptime of their application. After evaluating the offerings received by the Cloud Service Provider (CSP), the IT manager decided it was mandatory to develop processes to continue operations without access to community or public cloud-based applications. Which of the following arguments MOST likely led the IT manager to make this decision?

Options:

A.

Circumstances may force a cloud provider to discontinue operations

B.

Most cloud service offerings are unique to each provider and may not be easily portable

C.

Integrity and confidentiality are not ensured properly on most cloud service offerings

D.

The need to develop alternative hosting strategies for applications deployed to the cloud

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Questions 39

When starting an external benchmarking study, a firm must first:

Options:

A.

determine the metrics which will be measured and compared.

B.

identify the target firms with which to benchmark against.

C.

understand its own processes and document performance.

D.

determine its areas of weakness versus the competition's.

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Questions 40

If fixed costs are §200,000 and 20,000 units are produced, a unit's fixed cost is §10. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

variable costing.

B.

activity-based costing (ABC).

C.

absorption costing.

D.

overhead costing.

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Questions 41

What priority control technique is most appropriate for a firm using a cellular production system?

Options:

A.

Shortest processing time (SPT) rule

B.

Distribution requirements planning (DRP)

C.

Pull production activity control (PAC)

D.

Push production activity control (PAC)

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Questions 42

What is the MAIN benefit of network segmentation?

Options:

A.

Limiting data transfer

B.

Limiting cyberattack damage

C.

Limiting privilege access

D.

Limiting network addresses

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Questions 43

The help desk received a call from a user noting the digital certificate on the organization-issued security identification card was invalid. Which is the BEST reason the certificate stopped working?

Options:

A.

The user's certificate was compromised by the public key of the user.

B.

The public key of the Certificate Authority (CA) is known to attackers.

C.

The user's certificate was absent from the Certificate Revocation List (CRL).

D.

The user's certificate has expired and needs to be renewed.

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Questions 44

A cloud-based web application requires the use of cryptographic keys to encrypt user-uploaded files at rest. Where is the safest place to store these cryptographic keys?

Options:

A.

Keys are stored in a password protected zip file.

B.

Keys are stored with source code in a revision control system.

C.

Keys are stored in a cloud-based file storage system.

D.

Keys are stored in a central, internal key management system.

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Questions 45

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) has multiple components. The information security plan portion must prioritize its efforts. Which 3 aspects of information security MUST be prioritized?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

B.

Physical security, access control, asset protection

C.

Intent, capability, opportunity

D.

Threat level, network security, information disposal

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Questions 46

Which of the following planes directs the flow of data within a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Data

C.

Application

D.

Control

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Questions 47

Which compensating control is the MOST effective to prevent fraud within an organization?

Options:

A.

Separation of privilege

B.

Pre-employment background checks

C.

Principle of least privilege

D.

Log monitoring

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Questions 48

Which of the following planning modules considers the shortest-range planning goals?

Options:

A.

Capacity requirementsplanning(CRP)

B.

Input/output analysis

C.

Resource planning

D.

Rough-cut capacity planning (RCCP)

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Questions 49

Which of the following BEST describes the responsibility of an information System Security Officer?

Options:

A.

Establish the baseline, architecture, and management direction and ensure compliance

B.

Ensure adherence to physical security policies and procedures

C.

Direct, coordinate, plan, and organize information security activities

D.

Ensure the availability of the systems and their contents

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Questions 50

An organization is updating an Application Programming Interface (API) to support requests coming from mobile applications distributed on public application stores. The API’s primary function is to supply confidential documents when users request them within the mobile application. Which approach would BEST respond to this use case?

Options:

A.

Require that the user supplies their credential to access confidential documents.

B.

Require a Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection to the organization's network to access confidential documents.

C.

Implement Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) to validate the identity of the user requesting access to confidential documents.

D.

Implement Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0 to require the users to request permission to access confidential documents.

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Questions 51

Which of the following methods places a replenishment order when the quantity on hand falls below a predetermined level?

Options:

A.

Min-max system

B.

Fixed order quantity

C.

Periodic review

D.

Available-to-promlse (ATP)

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Questions 52

A health care organization's new cloud-based customer-facing application is constantly receiving security events from dubious sources. What BEST describes a security event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity or availability of the application and data?

Options:

A.

Failure

B.

Incident

C.

Attack

D.

Breach

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Questions 53

Which of the following items does the master scheduler have the authority to change in the master scheduling process?

Options:

A.

Product mix

B.

Aggregate volume

C.

Engineering change effectivity date

D.

Customer order quantities

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Questions 54

Which of the following BEST describes the responsibility of an information System Security Officer?

Options:

A.

Establish the baseline, architecture, and management direction and ensure compliance

B.

Ensure adherence to physical security policies and procedures

C.

Direct, coordinate, plan, and organize information security activities

D.

Ensure the availability of the systems and their contents

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Questions 55

Which of the following techniques would a group use to prioritize problems?

Options:

A.

Critical path analysis

B.

Pareto analysis

C.

Scatter charts

D.

Cause-and-effect diagrams

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Questions 56

An information system containing Protected Health Information (PHI) will be accessed by doctors, nurses, and others working in a hospital. The same application will be used by staff in the pharmacy department only for dispensing prescribed medication. Additionally, patients can log in to view medical history. The system owner needs to propose an access control model that considers environment, situation, compliance, and security policies while dynamically granting the required level of access. Which access control model is the MOST suitable?

Options:

A.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

B.

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

C.

Task-based access control

D.

Risk-adaptive access control

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Questions 57

A financial organization is using an internally developed application. The internal software development team has to adhere to the coding standards of the Software Development Cycle (SDLC). For applications whose functionality is exposed through the public Internet, this requirement consists of testing the application for potential vulnerabilities before it is deployed into production. What is the BEST type of vulnerability test to perform?

Options:

A.

Web application unit test

B.

Online application development test

C.

Web application penetration test

D.

Online application assurance test

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Questions 58

A Software As A Service (SaaS) solution was compromised due to multiple missing security controls. The SaaS deployment was rushed and the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) was not followed. Which SDLC phase would have been MOST effective in preventing this failure?

Options:

A.

Maintenance

B.

Design

C.

Testing

D.

Requirements

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Questions 59

The development team wants new commercial software to Integrate into the current systems. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

B.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

C.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

D.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

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Questions 60

An organization provides customer call center operations for major financial services organizations around the world. As part of a long-term strategy, the organization plans to add healthcare clients to the portfolio. In preparation for contract negotiations with new clients, to which cybersecurity framework(s) should the security team ensure the organization adhere?

Options:

A.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT) and Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA) frameworks

B.

National Institute Of Standards And Technology (NIST) and International Organization For Standardization (ISO) frameworks

C.

Frameworks specific to the industries and locations clients do business in

D.

Frameworks that fit the organization’s risk appetite, as cybersecurity does not vary industry to industry

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Questions 61

What are the FIRST two steps an organization should conduct to classify its assets?

Options:

A.

Define user requirements and collate existing inventories

B.

Categorize assets and set minimum security controls

C.

Conduct an inventory of assets and determine the owners

D.

Obtain senior management buy-in and conduct a risk assessment

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Questions 62

An organization wants to control access at a high-traffic entrance using magnetic-stripe cards for identification. Which of the following is the BEST for the organization to utilize?

Options:

A.

A turnstile

B.

A security guard

C.

A mantrap

D.

A locking door

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Questions 63

Which of the following should be done FIRST when implementing an Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution?

Options:

A.

List and evaluate IAM available products.

B.

Evaluate the existing Information Technology (IT) environment.

C.

Evaluate business needs.

D.

Engage the sponsor and identify key stakeholders.

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Questions 64

An information security professional is enhancing the organization's existing information security awareness program through educational posters. Which of the following is the MOST effective location for poster placement?

Options:

A.

In a secure room inside the office

B.

Beside the copy machine

C.

Outside the office

D.

In the human resources area

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Questions 65

Which of the following actions provides the BEST evidence for forensic analysis of powered-off device?

Options:

A.

Copy all potentially useful files from the system to a network drive.

B.

Image the entire hard disk on an external drive.

C.

Copy all system and application log files to an external drive.

D.

Collect the memory, running processes, and temporary files.

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Questions 66

A security team member is assessing an organization’s backup strategy that follows the 3-2-1 rule. How many different types of media should they inspect to validate?

Options:

A.

6

B.

3

C.

2

D.

1

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Questions 67

Which of the following sampling techniques is BEST suited for comprehensive risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Convenience sampling

B.

Snowball sampling

C.

Judgement sampling

D.

Systematic sampling

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Questions 68

An information security professional is tasked with configuring full disk encryption on new hardware equipped with a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). How does TPM further enhance the security posture of full disk encryption if configured properly?

Options:

A.

TPM will use the Operating System (OS) for full disk encryption key protection.

B.

TPM will protect the full disk encryption keys.

C.

TPM will handle the allocation of the hardware storage drives for full disk encryption.

D.

TPM will provide full disk encryption automatically.

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Questions 69

Which of the following documents is the BEST reference to describe application functionality?

Options:

A.

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)

B.

System security plan

C.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA) report

D.

Vulnerability assessment report

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Questions 70

During a security incident investigation, a security analyst discovered an unauthorized module was compiled into an application package as part of the application assembly phase. This incident occurred immediately prior to being digitally signed and deployed using a deployment pipeline.

Which of the following security controls would BEST prevent this type of incident in the future?

Options:

A.

Invoke code repository vulnerability scanning on a regularly scheduled basis.

B.

Implement Role-Based Access Controls (RBAC) in each component of the deployment pipeline.

C.

Encrypt the application package after being digitally signed.

D.

Implement a software Bill of Materials (BOM) for each application package.

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Questions 71

An organization has deployed an Identity And Access Management (IAM) tool and is expanding their information governance program. Which of the following would BEST be included in the governance for IAM?

Options:

A.

Employ password masking, obfuscation, and tokenization and automate account updates based on human resources reporting.

B.

Implementing Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and account lookout controls.

C.

Create and enforce a strong password policy and implementing security awareness training for all users.

D.

Control physical access to the IAM system and implementing Data Loss Prevention (DPL) for credentials.

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Questions 72

Which of the following strategies is most appropriate for a business unit with a low relative market share in a high-growth market?

Options:

A.

Using excess cash generated to fund other business units

B.

Investing in the acquisition of competitors

C.

Investing in projects to maintain market share

D.

Designing product improvements to protect market share

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Questions 73

Business management should be engaged in the creation of Business Continuity (BC) and Disaster Recovery plans (DRP) because they need to

Options:

A.

Ensure that the technology chosen for implementation meets all of the requirements.

B.

Provide resources and support for the development and testing of the plan.

C.

Predetermine spending for development and implantation of the plan.

D.

Specify the solution and options around which the plans will be developed.

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Questions 74

A logistics manager Is faced with delivering an order via rail or truck. Shipping via rail costs S300 and takes 14 days. Shipping via truck costs $600 and takes 3 days. If the holding cost is $40 per day, what is the cost to deliver the order?

Options:

A.

$340for rail,$600 for truck

B.

$340for rail.$720 for truck

C.

$860for rail,$720 for truck

D.

$860for rail.$600 for truck

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Questions 75

Long lead-time items with stable demand would best be supported by a supply chain:

Options:

A.

using a pull system.

B.

linked through an enterprise resources planning (ERP) system.

C.

designed to be responsive.

D.

positioning inventory close to the consumer.

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Questions 76

A health care organization's new cloud-based customer-facing application is constantly receiving security events from dubious sources. What BEST describes a security event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity or availability of the application and data?

Options:

A.

Failure

B.

Incident

C.

Attack

D.

Breach

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Questions 77

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Mai-In-The-Middle (MITM)

B.

Side-Channel

C.

Frequency analysis

D.

Fault injection

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Questions 78

A security engineer needs to perform threat modeling on a microprocessor design for an Internet of Things (IoT) application. Using the MITRE Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE) catalog for hardware, a risk analysis is performed. What kind of threat modeling approach would be BEST to identify entry points into the system based on motivation?

Options:

A.

System centric

B.

Attacker centric

C.

Threat centric

D.

Asset centric

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Questions 79

Which of the following ensures privileges are current and appropriately reflect an individual’s authorized roles and responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Access authorization

B.

Identity management

C.

Access approval

D.

Access review

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Questions 80

A healthcare organization’s new cloud-based customer-facing application is constantly receiving security events from dubious sources. What BEST describes a security event that compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the application and data?

Options:

A.

Attack

B.

Breach

C.

Failure

D.

Incident

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Questions 81

A security professional is accessing an organization-issued laptop using biometrics to remotely log into a network resource. Which type of authentication method is described in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Something one does

B.

Something one is

C.

Something one has

D.

Something one knows

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Questions 82

A security consultant is recommending the implementation of a security-focused Configuration Management (CM) process in an organization. What would be the BEST benefit the security consultant would include in the recommendation?

Options:

A.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with regulatory requirements placed on an organization.

B.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with existing security requirements of the organization.

C.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with best practices derived from industry frameworks.

D.

Security-focused CM surpasses existing security requirements of the organization.

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Questions 83

A company has a demand for 30 units of A, 40 units of B, and 50 units of C. These products are scheduled to run daily in batches of 10 as follows: ABC, ABC, ABC, CBC. What is this scheduling

technique called?

Options:

A.

Mixed-model

B.

Matrix

C.

Synchronized

D.

Line balancing

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Questions 84

Which of the following combines multiple software programming tools into one package?

Options:

A.

Program language compilers

B.

Integrated development environments

C.

Dynamic Link Libraries (DLL)

D.

Software development kit

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Questions 85

Which of the following is the benefit of using Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) version 2 on endpoint devices?

Options:

A.

Apply patches to endpoints across the enterprise.

B.

Use software configuration management for endpoints.

C.

Monitor endpoints by collecting software inventory and configuration settings.

D.

Enforce Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) on endpoints across the enterprise.

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Questions 86

Following the go-live of a new financial software, an organization allowed the Information Technology (IT) officer to maintain all rights and access permissions to help the organization staff should they have challenges in their day-to-day work. What is the BEST way to categorize the situation?

Options:

A.

Excessive privileges

B.

Need to know access

C.

Training access

D.

Least access principle

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Questions 87

Which of the following BEST describes an individual modifying something the individual is not supposed to?

Options:

A.

Exfiltration

B.

Tampering

C.

Spoofing

D.

Repudiation

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Questions 88

Maintaining software asset security is MOST dependent on what information?

Options:

A.

Software licensing

B.

Asset ownership

C.

Inventory of software

D.

Classification level

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Questions 89

An organizational policy requires that any data from organization-issued devices be securely destroyed before disposal. Which method provides the BEST assurance of data destruction?

Options:

A.

Incinerating

B.

Reformatting

C.

Degaussing

D.

Erasing

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Questions 90

Which of the following is an access control method that organizations can use to prevent unauthorized access?

Options:

A.

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)

B.

Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)

C.

Token-based authentication

D.

Digital verification

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Questions 91

Why would a network administrator monitor Internet of Things (IoT) security differently than the security of standards network devices?

Options:

A.

IoT devices are not developed with cybersecurity in mind.

B.

IoT devices are unencrypted.

C.

IoT devices require Power over Ethernet.

D.

IoT devices are wireless.

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Questions 92

An organization's security policy requires remote hosts to be authenticated before they can access network resources. Which of the following is the BEST option for the organization to enforce its policy?

Options:

A.

Install a firewall.

B.

Implement Internet Protocol (IP) Access Control Lists (ACL).

C.

Implement 802.1X.

D.

Install an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS).

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Questions 93

Which security concept applies if an architecture diagram illustrates a particular user/role combination with access to an asset or applicaton?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Identification

C.

Authorization

D.

Authentication

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Questions 94

A lengthy power outage led to unavailability of time critical services resulting in considerable losses. It was determined that a backup electrical generator did not work as intended at the time of the incident due to lack of fuel. What should the security consultant FIRST Investigate?

Options:

A.

Maintenance procedures

B.

Supplier contracts

C.

Failover designs

D.

Product catalogs

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Questions 95

Which of the following can allow an attacker to bypass authentication?

Options:

A.

Response tampering

B.

Machine enumeration

C.

User agent manipulation

D.

Social engineering

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Questions 96

An organization has recently been hacked. To prevent future breaches, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) hires a third-party vendor to perform penetration testing on the network. Once complete, the vendor provides to the CISO a final report generated by a high-quality vulnerability scanner. The CISO rejects the report as incomplete.

Why is the vendor's penetration test considered incomplete?

Options:

A.

The vendor should have attempted to exploit the identified vulnerabilities.

B.

The vendor should also provide a guide to remediate the identified vulnerabilities.

C.

The vendor should have provided a risk report of vulnerabilities found.

D.

The vendor should have worked closely with network engineers to understand the network infrastructure better.

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Questions 97

An organization’s computer incident responses team PRIMARY responds to which type of control?

Options:

A.

Administrative

B.

Detective

C.

Corrective

D.

presentative

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Questions 98

Which approach will BEST mitigate risks associated with root user access while maintaining system functionality?

Options:

A.

Creating a system where administrative tasks are performed under monitored sessions using the root account, with audits conducted regularly

B.

Implementing a policy where users log in as root for complex tasks but use personal accounts for everyday activities, with strict logging of root access

C.

Configuring individual user accounts with necessary privileges for specific tasks and employing “sudo” for occasional administrative needs

D.

Allowing key authorized personnel to access the root account for critical system changes, while other staff use limited accounts with “sudo” for routine tasks

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Questions 99

A firm that currently produces all items to stock is implementing the concept of postponement in all new product designs. Which of the following outcomes is most likely to result?

Options:

A.

Product variety will decrease.

B.

Sales volume per product family will increase.

C.

Number of finished items stocked will decrease.

D.

Number of component items stocked will increase.

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Questions 100

When an organization is recruiting for roles within the organization, at which stage of the employee life cycle are termination procedures incorporated?

Options:

A.

Security training

B.

Orientation

C.

User provisioning

D.

Background check

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Questions 101

One advantage of adopting a supply network perspective Is that it:

Options:

A.

protects global markets.

B.

enhances understanding of competitive and cooperative forces.

C.

defines the market relationships and partnerships.

D.

encourages rivals to collaborate.

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Questions 102

If all other factors remain the same, when finished goods inventory investment is increased, service levels typically will:

Options:

A.

remain the same.

B.

increase in direct (linear) proportion.

C.

increase at a decreasing rate.

D.

increase at an increasing rate.

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Questions 103

Endpoint security needs to be established after an organization procured 1,000 industrial Internet Of Things (IoT) sensors. Which of the following challenges are the security engineers MOST likely to face?

Options:

A.

Identity And Access Management (IAM)

B.

Power and physical security

C.

Configuration Management (CM) and deployment

D.

Installation and connection

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Questions 104

The horizon for forecasts that are input to the sales and operations planning (S&OP) process should be long enough that:

Options:

A.

cumulative forecast deviation approaches zero.

B.

planned product launches can be incorporated.

C.

required resources can be properly planned.

D.

supply constraints can be resolved.

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Questions 105

Which of the following situations is most likely to occur when using a push system?

Options:

A.

Work centers receive work even if capacity is not available.

B.

Work centers are scheduled using finite capacity planning.

C.

Work centers operate using decentralized control.

D.

Work centers signal previous work centers when they are ready for more work.

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Questions 106

A computer forensic analyst is examining suspected malware from a computer system post-attack. Upon reverse engineering the code, the analyst sees several concerning instructions. One of those concerning instructions is that it installs a Unified Extensible Firmware Interface Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) rootkit, and when the system is then rebooted, the BIOS checks for a certain unknown program to be installed. Which security feature MOST likely would have detected and prevented this type of attack if already on the system?

Options:

A.

Operating System (OS) virtualization

B.

Memory protection

C.

Cryptographic module

D.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

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Questions 107

A web application is found to have SQL injection (SQLI) vulnerabilities. What is the BEST option to remediate?

Options:

A.

Use prepared statements with parameterized queries

B.

Do allow or use Structured Query Language (SQL) within GET methods.

C.

Use substitution variables for all Structure Query Language (SQL) statements.

D.

Do not allow quote characters to be entered.

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Questions 108

The Information Technology (IT) manager of a large organization has been tasked with implementing a distributed third-party Identity As A Service (IDaaS). The local security team is concerned that the Identity Provider (IdP) and resource provider have direct connectivity outside of enterprise control. Which of the following authentication methods BEST address this concern?

Options:

A.

Federation authorities access list

B.

Manual registration

C.

Proxied federation

D.

Signed assertion

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Questions 109

A product manager wishes to store sensitive development data using a cloud storage vendor while maintaining exclusive control over passwords and encryption credentials. What is the BEST method for meeting these requirements?

Options:

A.

Local self-encryption with passwords managed by a local password manager

B.

Client-side encryption keys and passwords generated dynamically during cloud access sessions

C.

Zero-knowledge encryption keys provided by the cloud storage vendor

D.

Passwords generated by a local password manager during cloud access sessions and encrypted in transit

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Questions 110

An organization identified a Distributed Denial-Of-Service (DDoS) attack in which a large number of packets were broadcast with the intent of exploiting vulnerabilities of the Internet Protocol (IP) and the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP). Which Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) layer would be affected by the attack?

Options:

A.

Internet layer

B.

Transport layer

C.

Application layer

D.

Network layer

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Questions 111

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use to test whether servers are set up according to the organization's documented policies and standards?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

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Questions 112

An organization is implementing an enterprise resource planning system using the traditional waterfall Software development Life Cycle (SDLC) model. When is the BEST time to perform a code review to identity security gaps?

Options:

A.

When the software is being released for testing

B.

When full system code is being merged

C.

When business analysis is being performed and systems requirements are being identified

D.

When system architecture is being defined and user interface is being designed

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Questions 113

A company is having trouble with raw material deliveries and has decided to develop a supplier certification program. The certification process most appropriately would start with which of the following suppliers?

Options:

A.

Suppliers of "A“ classified items

B.

Suppliers recently ISO 9000 certified

C.

Suppliers with the worst performance records

D.

Suppliers with vendor-managed inventory (VMI)

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Questions 114

A plant uses a level production strategy due to the high costs of hiring and letting go of skilled employees. The constrained resource is due to be upgraded in the fourth month of the planning horizon, and that will reduce capacity for that month by 17%.

Which of the following actions would be appropriate in this situation to maintain current levels of customer service and gross margin?

Options:

A.

Increase planned production for the next three periods.

B.

Defer the upgrade to a period beyond the planning time fence.

C.

Increase planned production from the fifth period on.

D.

Defer the upgrade to the period in which the highest stock level is planned.

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Questions 115

What is the HIGHEST security concern on trans-border data?

Options:

A.

Organizations that are not in highly regulated industries do not have the resources to achieve compliance.

B.

Cyber transactions occur in an ever-changing legal and regulatory landscape without fixed borders.

C.

Information security practitioners are not Subject Matter Experts (SME) for all legal and compliance requirements.

D.

Organizations must follow all laws and regulations related to the use of the Internet.

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Questions 116

Once an organization has identified and properly classified their information and data assets, policies and procedures are created to establish requirements for the handling, protection, retention, and disposal of those assets. Which solution is the BEST method to enforce data usage policies, discover sensitive data, monitor the use of sensitive data, and ensure regulatory compliance and intellectual property protection?

Options:

A.

Application whitelisting

B.

Data governance

C.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

D.

Intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS)

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Questions 117

Which of the following is a core subset of The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF) enterprise architecture model?

Options:

A.

Security architecture

B.

Availability architecture

C.

Privacy architecture

D.

Data architecture

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Questions 118

Which of the following is the BEST activity to mitigate risk from ransomware on mobile devices and removable media in a corporate environment?

Options:

A.

Use compliant encryption algorithms and tools.

B.

Use a secure password management tool to store sensitive information.

C.

Implement Mobile Device Management (MDM).

D.

Develop and test an appropriate data backup and recovery plan.

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Questions 119

An organization has been struggling to improve their security posture after a recent breach.

Where should the organization focus their efforts?

Options:

A.

Common configuration enumerations

B.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

C.

Service-Level Agreements (SLA)

D.

National vulnerability database

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Questions 120

Given the information below, reducing which measure by 10% would contribute most to shortening the cash-to-cash cycle time?

CPIM-8.0 Question 120

Options:

A.

Accounts receivable

B.

Inventory value

C.

Accounts payable

D.

Cost of capital

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Questions 121

When implementing solutions for information security continuous monitoring, which method provides the MOST interoperability between security tools?

Options:

A.

Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery (CI/CD)

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

C.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

D.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

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Questions 122

A financial services organization wants to deploy a wireless network. Which of the following is the WEAKEST option for ensuring a secure network?

Options:

A.

Separating internal wireless users from guests

B.

Media Access control (MAC) address filtering

C.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

D.

Deploy mutual authentication between the client and the network

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Questions 123

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for deciding the classification of data in an organization?

Options:

A.

Data owner/steward

B.

Authorizing Official (AO)

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.

Data custodian

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Questions 124

A security team is analyzing the management of data within the human resources systems, as well as, the intended use of the data, and with whom and how the data will be shared. Which type of assessment is the team MOST likely performing?

Options:

A.

Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA)

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Sensitive data assessment

D.

Personally Identifiable Information (PII) risk assessment

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Questions 125

In a rapidly changing business environment, a primary advantage of an effective customer relationship management (CRM) program is:

Options:

A.

reduced forecast variability.

B.

fewer customer order changes.

C.

fewer customer defections.

D.

earlier Identification of shifts Incustomer preferences.

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Questions 126

As the organization requires user friendly access to a new web-based application, a software developer decides to implement Single Sign-On (SSO). The developer uses the de-facto standard for web-based applications and the implementation includes the use of a JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) web token. With this information, which is the BEST way for the software developer to establish SSO capability?

Options:

A.

The developer Inputs the user's account, the user's password, and a token.

B.

The developer uses the user's credentials stored within the web-based application.

C.

The developer uses Transport Layer Security (TLS) certificates and Open ID Connect (OIDC).

D.

The developer uses Open ID Connect (OIDC) and Open Authorization (OAuth).

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Questions 127

When the discrete available-to-promise (ATP) method is used, the master production receipt quantity is committed to:

Options:

A.

any request for shipment prior to the planning time fence.

B.

any request for shipment prior to the demand time fence (DTF).

C.

requests only for shipment before the next master production schedule (MPS) receipt.

D.

requests only for shipment in the period of the receipt.

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Questions 128

In the Session layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model, which of the following modes allows only one host to send information to its peer?

Options:

A.

Half-duplex

B.

Simplex

C.

Unicast

D.

Full-duplex

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Questions 129

Which of the following statements about demonstrated capacity Is true?

Options:

A.

It reflects the future load.

B.

It should be higher than rated capacity.

C.

It considers utilization and efficiency factors.

D.

It is determined from actual results.

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Questions 130

When implementing solutions for information security continuous monitoring, which method provides the MOST interoperability between security tools?

Options:

A.

Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery (CI/CD)

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

C.

Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP)

D.

Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)

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Questions 131

Access Control Lists (ACL), protection bits, and file passwords are typical examples of which of the following access control methods?

Options:

A.

Discretionary.

B.

Attribute-based.

C.

Mandatory.

D.

Role-based.

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Questions 132

Bad actors with little expense can easily make calls. Which social engineer strategy is a telecommunications ONLY risk concept?

Options:

A.

Pretexting

B.

Diversion theft

C.

Phreaking

D.

Baiting

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Questions 133

Which of the following production activity control (PAC) techniques focuses on optimizing output?

Options:

A.

Gantt chart

B.

Priority sequencing rules

C.

Theory of constraints (TOC) scheduling

D.

Critical path management (CPM)

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Questions 134

In a lean environment, the batch-size decision for planning "A" items would be done by:

Options:

A.

least total cost.

B.

min-max system.

C.

lot-for-lot (L4L).

D.

periodic order quantity.

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Questions 135

Which of the following methods places a replenishment order when the quantity on hand falls below a predetermined level?

Options:

A.

Min-max system

B.

Fixed order quantity

C.

Periodic review

D.

Available-to-promlse (ATP)

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Questions 136

An organization has to conduct quarterly reviews of user authorization access to its primary financial application. Which position is responsible for performing these reviews?

Options:

A.

Internal audit manager

B.

Information Security Manager (ISM)

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

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Questions 137

Which of the following should Business Impact Analysis (BIA) reports always include?

Options:

A.

Security assessment report

B.

Recovery time objectives

C.

Plan of action and milestones

D.

Disaster Recovery Plans (DRP)

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Questions 138

Which of the following states of data becomes MOST important to protect as organizations continue to transition toward Application Programming Interface (API)-based solutions?

Options:

A.

Data at rest

B.

Data in use

C.

Data in transit

D.

Data on the client machine

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Questions 139

Which of the below represent the GREATEST cloud-specific policy and organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Loss of governance between the client and cloud provider

B.

Loss of business reputation due to co-tenant activities

C.

Supply chain failure

D.

Cloud service termination or failure

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Questions 140

Which of the following is the fundamental difference between finite loading and other capacity planning approaches?

Options:

A.

It is highly dependent on advanced computer software to function effectively.

B.

It is only managed by shop floor supervisors.

C.

It can use historical information to drive decision-making processes.

D.

It considers adjustments to plans based on planned capacity utilization.

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Questions 141

What does the Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) method define?

Options:

A.

What equipment is needed to perform

B.

How information is accessed within a system

C.

What actions the user can or cannot do

D.

How to apply the security labels in a system

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Questions 142

An organization is concerned that if an employee’s mobile device is lost or stolen and does not reconnect to the carrier network, the data on the device may still be at risk. Consequently, the organization has implemented a control on all mobile devices to require an eight-character passcode for unlock and login. What should happen after multiple incorrect passcode attempts?

Options:

A.

The device should be restarted.

B.

The device should be wiped.

C.

The device should be turned off.

D.

The device passcode should be reset.

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Questions 143

Which of the following security techniques can be used to ensure the integrity of software as well as determine who developed the software?

Options:

A.

Independent verification and validation

B.

Code signing

C.

Digital Rights Management (DRM)

D.

Software assessment

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Questions 144

A security engineer developing software for a professional services organization has a requirement that users cannot have concurrent access to data of clients that are competitors. Which security model should the security engineer implement to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Brewer-Nash

B.

Bell-LaPadula

C.

Biba Integrity

D.

Clark Wilson

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Questions 145

If organizational leadership determines that its required continuous monitoring plan is too costly for the organization, what action should be taken by leadership and the Authorizing Official (AO)?

Options:

A.

Determine if the organization’s risk posture allows the system to operate without the continuous monitoring of the controls in question

B.

Identify and monitor only the technical controls, as they cover the most critical threats to the organization

C.

Ensure that the organization’s Configuration Management (CM) and control processes are documented and executed according to policy

D.

Continue developing the system using a secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) approach and testing, thereby eliminating the need for monitoring the security controls

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Questions 146

A security specialist is responsible to improve the security awareness program of a medium-sized organization and is tasked to track blocked targeted attacks. Which of the following BEST describes the outcome of the security specialist’s use of metrics for this task?

Options:

A.

An increase in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with a decrease in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

B.

A decrease in reported suspicious activity that aligns with an increase in detection of malware and DNS queries to blocked sites.

C.

An increase in reported suspicious activity that aligns with a decrease in detection of malware and DNS queries to blocked sites.

D.

A decrease in reported changes in click percentages that aligns with an increase in the number of phishes and incidents reported.

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Questions 147

A security consultant is working with an organization to help evaluate a proposal received from a new managed security service provider. There are questions about the confidentiality and effectiveness of the provider's system over a period of time. Which of the following System And Organization Controls (SOC) report types should the consultant request from the provider?

Options:

A.

SOC 2 Type 1

B.

SOC 2 Type 2

C.

SOC 1 Type 1

D.

SOC 1 Type 2

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Questions 148

In preparing for a facility location decision, proximity to suppliers would be classified as which kind of criteria?

Options:

A.

Service level requirements

B.

Future flexibility factors

C.

Access to transportation

D.

Cost factors

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Questions 149

A bank recently informed a customer that their account has been overdrawn after their latest transaction. This transaction was not authorized by the customer. Upon further investigation, it was determined by the security team that a hacker was able to manipulate the customer's pre-authenticated session and force a wire transfer of funds to a foreign bank account. Which type of attack MOST likely occurred?

Options:

A.

Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF)

B.

On-path attack

C.

Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)

D.

Session hijacking

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Questions 150

Information regarding a major new customer is received from sales. The company's most appropriate initial response would be to adjust the:

Options:

A.

production volume.

B.

master production schedule (MPS).

C.

sales and operations plan.

D.

forecast.

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Questions 151

How would a master production schedule (MPS) be used In an assemble-to-order (ATO) manufacturing environment?

Options:

A.

The MPS is used to plan subassemblies and components; end items are only scheduled when a customer order is received.

B.

Subassemblies are scheduled in the MPS when the customer order is received, and production can start.

C.

Typically, the MPS is not used in companies using an ATO manufacturing strategy.

D.

Often In an ATO environment, the MPS is created once a year and only revised if a product is discontinued.

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Questions 152

A company with stable demand that uses exponential smoothing to forecast demand would typically use a:

Options:

A.

low alpha value.

B.

low beta value.

C.

high beta value.

D.

high alpha value.

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Questions 153

An organization’s system engineer arranged a meeting with the system owner and a few major stakeholders to finalize the feasibility analysis for a new application.

Which of the following topics will MOST likely be on the agenda?

Options:

A.

Results of the preliminary cost-benefit studies

B.

Design of the application system and database processes

C.

Communication of procedures and reporting requirements

D.

Identification of inter-application dependencies

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Questions 154

The question below is based on the following standard and actual data of a production order

CPIM-8.0 Question 154

Which of the following statements about variances is true?

Options:

A.

The material price vanance for Component A is favorable by S10

B.

The labor pnce variance is unfavorable by S20

C.

The material usage variance for Component B is favorable by $36

D.

The labor efficiency variance is favorable by S20

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Questions 155

An organization has a requirement that all documents must be auditable and that the original is never modified once created. When designing the system, what security model MUST be implemented in order to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Biba Integrity

B.

Brewer-Nash

C.

Bell-LaPadula

D.

Clark-Wilson

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Questions 156

An organization is implementing Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) and needs a strategy to measure device trust for employee laptops. Which measurement strategy is BEST suited and why?

Options:

A.

Remote using a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) due to better protection of the keys

B.

Local using Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because low-level access software can be accessed

C.

Local using Trusted Platform Module (TPM) because of benefits from Segregation Of Duties (SoD)

D.

Remote using a scanning device because of benefits from Segregation Of Duties (SoD)

E.

Local using Mobile Device Management (MDM) because of device policy enforcement

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Questions 157

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using federated identity?

Options:

A.

The administrative burden is increased

B.

The application has access to the user’s credentials

C.

Applications may need complex modifications to implement

D.

A compromised credential provides access to all the user’s applications

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Questions 158

A startup organization has been growing rapidly and is planning to open a new office on another continent. Until infrastructure for the new office can be built, the organization is setting up remote access to the existing network. Which of the following is the MOST important secure implementation to complete during the expansion?

Options:

A.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

B.

Cybersecurity training

C.

Password management software

D.

Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

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Questions 159

Which of the following is the benefit of using Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) version 2 on endpoint devices?

Options:

A.

Apply patches to endpoints across the enterprise.

B.

Use software configuration management for endpoints.

C.

Monitor endpoints by collecting software inventory and configuration settings.

D.

Enforce Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) on endpoints across the enterprise.

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Questions 160

Health information stored in paper form may be destroyed using which of the following methods?

Options:

A.

Shredding

B.

Degaussing

C.

De-identification

D.

Archiving

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Questions 161

Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) training can be considered complete when the participants

Options:

A.

understand the rationale behind why a specific Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) strategy was chosen.

B.

receive a complete, accurate, and detailed explanation of the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP).

C.

understand their roles and interactions with other roles.

D.

have demonstrated their understanding during an actual disaster.

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Questions 162

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization's policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

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Questions 163

In conducting a new corporate payroll system security review, which of the following individuals should answer questions regarding the data classification?

Options:

A.

Head of human capital

B.

Head of compliance

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

D.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

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Questions 164

Which of the following is a component of the Clark-Wilson model?

Options:

A.

Transformation procedures

B.

Enforcement rules

C.

Data classifications

D.

Integrity labels

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Questions 165

Which of the following is a methodology for threat modeling in application?

Options:

A.

Disaster, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, And Discoverability (DREAD)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Pretend, Allow, Crash, Modify, Ascertain, Name

D.

Confidentiality, Authentication, Integrity, Nonrepudiation, Availability

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Exam Code: CPIM-8.0
Exam Name: Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0)
Last Update: Oct 26, 2025
Questions: 565

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