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PCCET Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

PCCET Question 4

Options:

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Questions 5

Order the OSI model with Layer7 at the top and Layer1 at the bottom.

Options:

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Questions 6

Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Birthplace

B.

Login 10

C.

Profession

D.

Name

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Questions 7

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

Options:

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

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Questions 8

Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?

Options:

A.

They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.

B.

They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.

C.

They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.

D.

They typically attack only once.

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Questions 9

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

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Questions 10

Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

how the data is backed up in one or more locations

B.

how the application can be used

C.

how the application processes the data

D.

how the application can transit the Internet

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Questions 11

Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?

Options:

A.

Evil twin

B.

Jasager

C.

Parager

D.

Mirai

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Questions 12

Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?

PCCET Question 12

Options:

A.

Star Topology

B.

Spine Leaf Topology

C.

Mesh Topology

D.

Bus Topology

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Questions 13

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security addresses ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured?

Options:

A.

visibility, governance, and compliance

B.

network protection

C.

dynamic computing

D.

compute security

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Questions 14

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

Options:

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

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Questions 15

Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

VPN Concentrator

B.

Content Identification

C.

Segmentation Platform

D.

Web Application Zone

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Questions 16

In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

On-premises

D.

IaaS

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Questions 17

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

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Questions 18

Which two statements describe the Jasager attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

□ The victim must manually choose the attacker s access point

B.

□ It actively responds to beacon reguests.

C.

□ It tries to get victims to conned at random.

D.

□ The attacker needs to be wilhin close proximity of the victim.

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Questions 19

A native hypervisor runs:

Options:

A.

with extreme demands on network throughput

B.

only on certain platforms

C.

within an operating system’s environment

D.

directly on the host computer’s hardware

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Questions 20

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)

D.

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

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Questions 21

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

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Questions 22

Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

Options:

A.

STIX

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

WildFire

D.

AutoFocus

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Questions 23

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.

B.

Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.

C.

Perform an attack on local systems.

D.

Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.

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Questions 24

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?

Options:

A.

Smart IP Scanner

B.

Wireshark

C.

Angry IP Scanner

D.

Netman

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Questions 25

What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?

Options:

A.

run a static analysis

B.

check its execution policy

C.

send the executable to WildFire

D.

run a dynamic analysis

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Questions 26

Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

Options:

A.

Case management

B.

Integrations

C.

Ticketing system

D.

Playbooks

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Questions 27

On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?

Options:

A.

endpoint-based firewall

B.

strong user passwords

C.

full-disk encryption

D.

software patches

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Questions 28

Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?

Options:

A.

cybercriminal

B.

cyberterrorist

C.

state-affiliated group

D.

hacktivist

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Questions 29

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

Options:

A.

Lateral movement within a cloud or data center

B.

An internal three-tier application

C.

Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter

D.

Traffic between an internal server and internal user

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Questions 30

Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organization ' s endpoint systems.

Options:

A.

It cannot identify command-and-control traffic

B.

It assumes that all internal devices are untrusted

C.

It assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted

D.

It cannot monitor all potential network ports

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Questions 31

Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?

Options:

A.

Elastic scalability

B.

5G

C.

External dynamic lists

D.

Log export

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Questions 32

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

Options:

A.

control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol

B.

control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C.

control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing

D.

control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

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Questions 33

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

Options:

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

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Questions 34

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

Options:

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

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Questions 35

Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?

Options:

A.

192.168.19.0

B.

192.168.19.16

C.

192.168.19.64

D.

192.168.19.32

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Questions 36

Match each tunneling protocol to its definition.

PCCET Question 36

Options:

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Questions 37

What is the key to “taking down” a botnet?

Options:

A.

prevent bots from communicating with the C2

B.

install openvas software on endpoints

C.

use LDAP as a directory service

D.

block Docker engine software on endpoints

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Questions 38

Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.

PCCET Question 38

PCCET Question 38

Options:

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Questions 39

What type of address translation does a NAT perform?

Options:

A.

Private to public

B.

Logical to physical

C.

Physical Io logical

D.

Public to private

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Questions 40

Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

Options:

A.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

B.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

C.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

D.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

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Questions 41

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

Options:

A.

Threat Prevention

B.

DNS Security

C.

WildFire

D.

URL Filtering

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Questions 42

Web 2.0 applications provide which type of service?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

FWaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

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Questions 43

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Management

C.

Cloud

D.

Security

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Questions 44

Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?

Options:

A.

technique

B.

patch

C.

vulnerability

D.

exploit

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Questions 45

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C ' s from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

Options:

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

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Questions 46

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

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Questions 47

Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?

Options:

A.

Knowledge-based

B.

Signature-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Database-based

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Exam Code: PCCET
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician
Last Update: May 17, 2026
Questions: 158

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