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PCCET Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician Questions and Answers

Questions 4

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

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Questions 5

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

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Questions 6

Match the description with the VPN technology.

PCCET Question 6

Options:

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Questions 7

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Split tunneling

B.

Diffie-Hellman groups

C.

d.Authentication Header (AH)

D.

IKE Security Association

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Questions 8

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

Options:

A.

192.168.6.168/30

B.

192.168.6.0/25

C.

192.168.6.160/29

D.

192.168.6.128/27

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Questions 9

Order the OSI model with Layer7 at the top and Layer1 at the bottom.

Options:

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Questions 10

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

Options:

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

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Questions 11

Which item accurately describes a security weakness that is caused by implementing a “ports first” data security solution in a traditional data center?

Options:

A.

You may have to use port numbers greater than 1024 for your business-critical applications.

B.

You may have to open up multiple ports and these ports could also be used to gain unauthorized entry into your datacenter.

C.

You may not be able to assign the correct port to your business-critical applications.

D.

You may not be able to open up enough ports for your business-critical applications which will increase the attack surface area.

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Questions 12

Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

Options:

A.

endpoint antivirus software

B.

strong endpoint passwords

C.

endpoint disk encryption

D.

endpoint NIC ACLs

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Questions 13

During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

Options:

A.

Frame

B.

Segment

C.

Packet

D.

Data

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Questions 14

Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?

Options:

A.

Github

B.

Jira

C.

Atom.io

D.

Jenkins

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Questions 15

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Application

C.

Session

D.

Transport

E.

Presentation

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Questions 16

Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?

Options:

A.

O Multicloud

B.

O 5G -

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

DevOps

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Questions 17

What does “forensics” refer to in a Security Operations process?

Options:

A.

Collecting raw data needed to complete the detailed analysis of an investigation

B.

Validating cyber analysts’ backgrounds before hiring

C.

Reviewing information about a broad range of activities

D.

Analyzing new IDS/IPS platforms for an enterprise

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Questions 18

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?

Options:

A.

Expedition

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMeld

D.

Cortex XDR

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Questions 19

In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

Options:

A.

simplifies security policy management

B.

reduces network latency

C.

causes security policies to be complex

D.

improves security policy application ID enforcement

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Questions 20

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

Options:

A.

the network is large

B.

the network is small

C.

the network has low bandwidth requirements

D.

the network needs backup routes

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Questions 21

Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?

Options:

A.

Global Protect

B.

WildFire

C.

AutoFocus

D.

STIX

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Questions 22

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

Options:

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

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Questions 23

Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

PCCET Question 23

Options:

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Questions 24

Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

DevOps

C.

Denial of Service

D.

Data Exposure Control

E.

Threat Prevention

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Questions 25

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Options:

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

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Questions 26

Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Birthplace

B.

Login 10

C.

Profession

D.

Name

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Questions 27

What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?

Options:

A.

Leverage an EDR solution to request the logs from endpoints.

B.

Connect to the endpoints remotely and download the logs.

C.

Configure endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM.

D.

Build a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints.

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Questions 28

Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.

PCCET Question 28

Options:

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Questions 29

Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?

Options:

A.

Document, monitor, and track the incident.

B.

Limit the scope of who knows about the incident.

C.

Increase the granularity of the application firewall.

D.

Disclose details of lhe attack in accordance with regulatory standards.

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Questions 30

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?

Options:

A.

Smart IP Scanner

B.

Wireshark

C.

Angry IP Scanner

D.

Netman

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Questions 31

Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

VPN Concentrator

B.

Content Identification

C.

Segmentation Platform

D.

Web Application Zone

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Questions 32

Which three layers of the OSI model correspond to the Application Layer (L4) of the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

Session, Transport, Network

B.

Application, Presentation, and Session

C.

Physical, Data Link, Network

D.

Data Link, Session, Transport

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Questions 33

The seventy of an attack needs to be escalated.

What needs to be in place in order for the security operations team to properly inform various units within the enterprise of the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Agreement

B.

FAO Incident Site —

C.

Corporate Executive Listserv

D.

Security Breach Blog

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Questions 34

From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?

Options:

A.

Unit 52

B.

PAN-DB

C.

BrightCloud

D.

MineMeld

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Questions 35

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Initial Research

B.

Change Control

C.

Content Engineering

D.

Breach Response

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Questions 36

Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

Options:

A.

Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand

B.

Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components

C.

Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code

D.

Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.

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Questions 37

Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.

PCCET Question 37

PCCET Question 37

Options:

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Questions 38

What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network

B.

Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure

C.

Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments

D.

Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS

E.

Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location

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Questions 39

Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast to deploy, requires minimal cost and is infinitely scalable?

Options:

A.

Benign

B.

Tolerated

C.

Sanctioned

D.

Secure

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Questions 40

Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Device-ID

C.

App-ID

D.

Content-ID

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Questions 41

Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

Options:

A.

North-South traffic

B.

Intrazone traffic

C.

East-West traffic

D.

Interzone traffic

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Questions 42

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security addresses ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured?

Options:

A.

visibility, governance, and compliance

B.

network protection

C.

dynamic computing

D.

compute security

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Questions 43

Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

Options:

A.

Case management

B.

Integrations

C.

Ticketing system

D.

Playbooks

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Questions 44

How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility

B.

Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure

C.

Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility

D.

Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility

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Questions 45

What type of DNS record maps an IPV6 address to a domain or subdomain to another hostname?

Options:

A.

SOA

B.

NS

C.

AAAA

D.

MX

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Questions 46

What type of address translation does a NAT perform?

Options:

A.

Private to public

B.

Logical to physical

C.

Physical Io logical

D.

Public to private

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Questions 47

In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?

Options:

A.

Computer

B.

Switch

C.

Infrastructure

D.

Cloud

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Exam Code: PCCET
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician
Last Update: Apr 19, 2024
Questions: 158

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