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Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which network device breaks networks into separate broadcast domains?

Options:

A.

Hub

B.

Layer 2 switch

C.

Router

D.

Wireless access point

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Questions 5

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

Options:

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

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Questions 6

In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?

Options:

A.

exploitation

B.

actions on the objective

C.

command and control

D.

installation

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Questions 7

Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.

Practitioner Question 7

Options:

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Questions 8

Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Birthplace

B.

Login 10

C.

Profession

D.

Name

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Questions 9

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?

Options:

A.

Smart IP Scanner

B.

Wireshark

C.

Angry IP Scanner

D.

Netman

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Questions 10

Which type of system collects data and uses correlation rules to trigger alarms?

Options:

A.

SIM

B.

SIEM

C.

UEBA

D.

SOAR

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Questions 11

Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

Options:

A.

Personal endpoint firewall

B.

Port-based firewall

C.

Next-generation firewall

D.

Stateless firewall

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Questions 12

How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility

B.

Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure

C.

Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility

D.

Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility

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Questions 13

Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

Options:

A.

interfaces

B.

business

C.

technology

D.

people

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Questions 14

Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

Options:

A.

MineMeld

B.

AutoFocus

C.

WildFire

D.

Cortex XDR

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Questions 15

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

Options:

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

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Questions 16

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Split tunneling

B.

Diffie-Hellman groups

C.

d.Authentication Header (AH)

D.

IKE Security Association

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Questions 17

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

Options:

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

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Questions 18

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

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Questions 19

What is a key method used to secure sensitive data in Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications?

Options:

A.

Allow downloads to managed devices but block them from unmanaged devices.

B.

Allow downloads to both managed and unmanaged devices.

C.

Leave data security in the hands of the cloud service provider.

D.

Allow users to choose their own applications to access data.

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Questions 20

Which of these ports is normally associated with HTTPS?

Options:

A.

443

B.

5050

C.

25

D.

80

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Questions 21

Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

C.

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D.

Split horizon

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Questions 22

Web 2.0 applications provide which type of service?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

FWaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

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Questions 23

What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Dedicated Networks

C.

Dedicated Hosts

D.

Multiplexing

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Questions 24

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

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Questions 25

How does adopting a serverless model impact application development?

Options:

A.

costs more to develop application code because it uses more compute resources

B.

slows down the deployment of application code, but it improves the quality of code development

C.

reduces the operational overhead necessary to deploy application code

D.

prevents developers from focusing on just the application code because you need to provision the underlying infrastructure to run the code

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Questions 26

What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

Options:

A.

It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.

B.

It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

C.

It manages applications accessible on endpoints.

D.

It reduces the need for network security.

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Questions 27

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

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Questions 28

Match each tunneling protocol to its definition.

Practitioner Question 28

Options:

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Questions 29

What is the purpose of SIEM?

Options:

A.

Securing cloud-based applications

B.

Automating the security team’s incident response

C.

Real-time monitoring and analysis of security events

D.

Filtering webpages employees are allowed to access

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Questions 30

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

Options:

A.

They share the work of both clients and servers.

B.

They allow client computers to perform most of the work.

C.

They divide responsibilities among clients.

D.

They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.

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Questions 31

What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?

Options:

A.

SOAR platforms focus on analyzing network traffic.

B.

SOAR platforms integrate automated response into the investigation process.

C.

SOAR platforms collect data and send alerts.

D.

SOAR platforms filter alerts with their broader coverage of security incidents.

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Questions 32

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Application

C.

Session

D.

Transport

E.

Presentation

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Questions 33

What protocol requires all routers in the same domain to maintain a map of the network?

Options:

A.

EIGRP

B.

Static

C.

RIP

D.

OSPF

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Questions 34

What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

Options:

A.

To provide consistency in response to security issues

B.

To give only administrators the ability to view logs

C.

To allow easy manual entry of changes to security templates

D.

To complicate programming for system administration -

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Questions 35

Which product functions as part of a SASE solution?

Options:

A.

Cortex

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

Kubernetes

D.

Prisma SD-WAN

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Questions 36

Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

Options:

A.

cybercriminals

B.

state-affiliated groups

C.

hacktivists

D.

cyberterrorists

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Questions 37

A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive's login credentials for a system update.

Which type of phishing attack does this represent?

Options:

A.

Whaling

B.

Vishing

C.

Pharming

D.

Angler phishing

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Questions 38

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

Options:

A.

control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol

B.

control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C.

control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing

D.

control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

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Questions 39

What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?

Options:

A.

run a static analysis

B.

check its execution policy

C.

send the executable to WildFire

D.

run a dynamic analysis

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Questions 40

Which architecture model uses virtual machines (VMs) in a public cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes

B.

Serverless

C.

Docker

D.

Host-based

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Questions 41

Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

Options:

A.

Behavior analysis

B.

Comparison of alerts to signatures

C.

Manual inspection of user activities

D.

Rule-based activity prioritization

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Questions 42

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

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Questions 43

In the network diagram below, which device is the router?

Practitioner Question 43

Options:

A.

A

B.

C

C.

D

D.

B

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Questions 44

Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It contains password characters that users enter to access encrypted data.

B.

It is a method used to encrypt data and authenticate web-based communication.

C.

It ensures the data that is transferred between a client and a server remains private.

D.

It provides administrator privileges to manage and control the access of network resources.

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Questions 45

Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

MAC

C.

SNMP

D.

NFS

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Questions 46

What does SIEM stand for?

Options:

A.

Security Infosec and Event Management

B.

Security Information and Event Management

C.

Standard Installation and Event Media

D.

Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring

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Questions 47

Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?

Options:

A.

Container security

B.

SaaS security

C.

Code security

D.

Network security

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Questions 48

Which three layers of the OSI model correspond to the Application Layer (L4) of the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

Session, Transport, Network

B.

Application, Presentation, and Session

C.

Physical, Data Link, Network

D.

Data Link, Session, Transport

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Questions 49

Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?

Practitioner Question 49

Options:

A.

Star Topology

B.

Spine Leaf Topology

C.

Mesh Topology

D.

Bus Topology

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Questions 50

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

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Questions 51

What are two limitations of signature-based anti-malware software? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is unable to detect polymorphic malware.

B.

It requires samples lo be buffered

C.

It uses a static file for comparing potential threats.

D.

It only uses packet header information.

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Questions 52

Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?

Options:

A.

HIPAA

B.

CISA

C.

GDPR

D.

PCI DSS

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Questions 53

What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Lateral movement

B.

Communication with covert channels

C.

Deletion of critical data

D.

Privilege escalation

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Questions 54

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

Options:

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

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Questions 55

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Options:

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

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Questions 56

What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?

Options:

A.

Leverage an EDR solution to request the logs from endpoints.

B.

Connect to the endpoints remotely and download the logs.

C.

Configure endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM.

D.

Build a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints.

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Questions 57

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

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Questions 58

What is required for an effective Attack Surface Management (ASM) process?

Options:

A.

Real-time data rich inventory

B.

Static inventory of assets

C.

Periodic manual monitoring

D.

Isolation of assets by default

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Questions 59

Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?

Options:

A.

It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.

B.

It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.

C.

It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.

D.

It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.

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Questions 60

Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?

Options:

A.

Knowledge-based

B.

Signature-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Database-based

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Questions 61

What would allow a security team to inspect TLS encapsulated traffic?

Options:

A.

DHCP markings

B.

Decryption

C.

Port translation

D.

Traffic shaping

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Questions 62

SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

People

B.

Accessibility

C.

Processes

D.

Understanding

E.

Business

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Questions 63

Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Privilege escalation

C.

Data exfiltration

D.

Persistence

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Questions 64

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Management

C.

Cloud

D.

Security

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Questions 65

A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

Options:

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

CaaS

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Questions 66

Why is it important to protect East-West traffic within a private cloud?

Options:

A.

All traffic contains threats, so enterprises must protect against threats across the entire network

B.

East-West traffic contains more session-oriented traffic than other traffic

C.

East-West traffic contains more threats than other traffic

D.

East-West traffic uses IPv6 which is less secure than IPv4

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Questions 67

Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?

Options:

A.

Document, monitor, and track the incident.

B.

Limit the scope of who knows about the incident.

C.

Increase the granularity of the application firewall.

D.

Disclose details of lhe attack in accordance with regulatory standards.

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Questions 68

You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.

Which type of attack is this?

Options:

A.

Whaling

B.

Spamming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Phishing

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Exam Code: Practitioner
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP)
Last Update: Dec 12, 2025
Questions: 227

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