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Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.

B.

Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.

C.

Perform an attack on local systems.

D.

Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.

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Questions 5

Which activity is a technique in the MITRE ATT & CK framework?

Options:

A.

Credential access

B.

Lateral movement

C.

Resource development

D.

Account discovery

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Questions 6

How does DevSecOps improve the Continuous Integration/Continuous Deployment (CI/CD) pipeline?

Options:

A.

DevSecOps improves pipeline security by assigning the security team as the lead team for continuous deployment

B.

DevSecOps ensures the pipeline has horizontal intersections for application code deployment

C.

DevSecOps unites the Security team with the Development and Operations teams to integrate security into the CI/CD pipeline

D.

DevSecOps does security checking after the application code has been processed through the CI/CD pipeline

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Questions 7

Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

Options:

A.

API

B.

Code security

C.

Virtualization

D.

IRP

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Questions 8

What are two disadvantages of Static Rout ng? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Manual reconfiguration

B.

Requirement for additional computational resources

C.

Single point of failure

D.

Less security

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Questions 9

A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.

Which technology meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

MDM

C.

EDR

D.

ADEM

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Questions 10

Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

Options:

A.

It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.

B.

It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.

C.

It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.

D.

It allows safe use of applications by scanning files for malware.

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Questions 11

Which two statements apply to the SSL/TLS protocol? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It contains password characters that users enter to access encrypted data.

B.

It is a method used to encrypt data and authenticate web-based communication.

C.

It ensures the data that is transferred between a client and a server remains private.

D.

It provides administrator privileges to manage and control the access of network resources.

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Questions 12

What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?

Options:

A.

requires the use of only one cloud service provider

B.

enables on-demand network services

C.

requires the use of two or more cloud service providers

D.

defines any network service

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Questions 13

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

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Questions 14

Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?

Options:

A.

Container security

B.

SaaS security

C.

Code security

D.

Network security

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Questions 15

Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?

Options:

A.

NetOps

B.

SecOps

C.

SecDevOps

D.

DevOps

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Questions 16

Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into Kubernetes environments?

Options:

A.

Virtual

B.

Container

C.

Physical

D.

SASE

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Questions 17

What is a dependency for the functionality of signature-based malware detection?

Options:

A.

Frequent database updates

B.

Support of a DLP device

C.

API integration with a sandbox

D.

Enabling quality of service

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Questions 18

During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

Options:

A.

Frame

B.

Segment

C.

Packet

D.

Data

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Questions 19

What role do containers play in cloud migration and application management strategies?

Options:

A.

They enable companies to use cloud-native tools and methodologies.

B.

They are used for data storage in cloud environments.

C.

They serve as a template manager for software applications and services.

D.

They are used to orchestrate virtual machines (VMs) in cloud environments.

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Questions 20

Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?

Options:

A.

Global Protect

B.

WildFire

C.

AutoFocus

D.

STIX

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Questions 21

What is required for a SIEM to operate correctly to ensure a translated flow from the system of interest to the SIEM data lake?

Options:

A.

connectors and interfaces

B.

infrastructure and containers

C.

containers and developers

D.

data center and UPS

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Questions 22

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

Options:

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

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Questions 23

What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

Options:

A.

To provide consistency in response to security issues

B.

To give only administrators the ability to view logs

C.

To allow easy manual entry of changes to security templates

D.

To complicate programming for system administration -

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Questions 24

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Management

C.

Cloud

D.

Security

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Questions 25

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

Options:

A.

They share the work of both clients and servers.

B.

They allow client computers to perform most of the work.

C.

They divide responsibilities among clients.

D.

They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.

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Questions 26

Which security tool provides policy enforcement for mobile users and remote networks?

Options:

A.

Service connection

B.

Prisma Access

C.

Prisma Cloud

D.

Digital experience management

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Questions 27

Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

Options:

A.

endpoint antivirus software

B.

strong endpoint passwords

C.

endpoint disk encryption

D.

endpoint NIC ACLs

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Questions 28

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

Options:

A.

Department of Homeland Security

B.

MITRE

C.

Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance

D.

Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

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Questions 29

Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.

B.

They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.

C.

They are a defense against spam attacks.

D.

They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.

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Questions 30

Match the description with the VPN technology.

Practitioner Question 30

Options:

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Questions 31

Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Detection of threats using data analysis

B.

Automation of security deployments

C.

Ingestion of log data

D.

Prevention of cvbersecurity attacks

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Questions 32

A native hypervisor runs:

Options:

A.

with extreme demands on network throughput

B.

only on certain platforms

C.

within an operating system’s environment

D.

directly on the host computer’s hardware

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Questions 33

Which type of firewall should be implemented when a company headquarters is required to have redundant power and high processing power?

Options:

A.

Cloud

B.

Physical

C.

Virtual

D.

Containerized

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Questions 34

Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?

Options:

A.

Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.

B.

Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.

C.

Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.

D.

Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.

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Questions 35

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

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Questions 36

In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?

Options:

A.

exploitation

B.

actions on the objective

C.

command and control

D.

installation

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Questions 37

When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

decrypt the infected file using base64

B.

alert system administrators

C.

quarantine the infected file

D.

delete the infected file

E.

remove the infected file’s extension

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Questions 38

What is the key to “taking down” a botnet?

Options:

A.

prevent bots from communicating with the C2

B.

install openvas software on endpoints

C.

use LDAP as a directory service

D.

block Docker engine software on endpoints

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Questions 39

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

Options:

A.

algorithms

B.

Cloud Access Security Broker

C.

Security Incident and Event Management

D.

playbooks

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Questions 40

Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

Options:

A.

interfaces

B.

business

C.

technology

D.

people

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Questions 41

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

Options:

A.

Threat Prevention

B.

DNS Security

C.

WildFire

D.

URL Filtering

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Questions 42

What type of DNS record maps an IPV6 address to a domain or subdomain to another hostname?

Options:

A.

SOA

B.

NS

C.

AAAA

D.

MX

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Questions 43

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

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Questions 44

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

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Questions 45

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Options:

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

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Questions 46

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)

D.

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

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Questions 47

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

Practitioner Question 47

Options:

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Questions 48

Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Practitioner Question 48

Options:

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Questions 49

Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?

Options:

A.

cybercriminal

B.

cyberterrorist

C.

state-affiliated group

D.

hacktivist

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Questions 50

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

Options:

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

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Questions 51

In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?

Options:

A.

weaponization

B.

reconnaissance

C.

exploitation

D.

delivery

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Questions 52

Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?

Options:

A.

Setting up a web page for harvesting user credentials

B.

Laterally transferring the file through a network after being granted access

C.

Embedding the file inside a pdf to be downloaded and installed

D.

Corruption of security device memory spaces while file is in transit

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Questions 53

A high-profile company executive receives an urgent email containing a malicious link. The sender appears to be from the IT department of the company, and the email requests an update of the executive ' s login credentials for a system update.

Which type of phishing attack does this represent?

Options:

A.

Whaling

B.

Vishing

C.

Pharming

D.

Angler phishing

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Questions 54

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?

Options:

A.

Expedition

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMeld

D.

Cortex XDR

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Questions 55

What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Completely isolated system

B.

Scripting of manual tasks

C.

Consistent incident handling

D.

Long-term retention of logs

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Questions 56

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

Options:

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

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Questions 57

Which Palo Alto Networks solution has replaced legacy IPS solutions?

Options:

A.

Advanced DNS Security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

Advanced Threat Prevention

D.

Advanced URL Filtering

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Questions 58

Which type of portable architecture can package software with dependencies in an isolated unit?

Options:

A.

Containerized

B.

Serverless

C.

Air-gapped

D.

SaaS

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Questions 59

Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?

Options:

A.

Group policy

B.

Stateless

C.

Stateful

D.

Static packet-filter

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Questions 60

Which three layers of the OSI model correspond to the Application Layer (L4) of the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

Session, Transport, Network

B.

Application, Presentation, and Session

C.

Physical, Data Link, Network

D.

Data Link, Session, Transport

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Questions 61

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

Options:

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

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Questions 62

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

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Questions 63

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

Options:

A.

ransomware

B.

Trojan horse

C.

virus

D.

worm

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Questions 64

You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.

Which type of attack is this?

Options:

A.

Whaling

B.

Spamming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Phishing

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Questions 65

Match each tunneling protocol to its definition.

Practitioner Question 65

Options:

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Questions 66

Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?

Options:

A.

DLP

B.

CASB

C.

DNS Security

D.

URL filtering

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Questions 67

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

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Questions 68

Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?

Options:

A.

Document, monitor, and track the incident.

B.

Limit the scope of who knows about the incident.

C.

Increase the granularity of the application firewall.

D.

Disclose details of lhe attack in accordance with regulatory standards.

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Exam Code: Practitioner
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP)
Last Update: Apr 30, 2026
Questions: 227

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