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Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

Options:

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

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Questions 5

What differentiates knowledge-based systems from behavior-based systems?

Options:

A.

Behavior-based systems find the data that knowledge-based systems store.

B.

Knowledge-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”. C. Knowledge-based systems try to find new, distinct traits to find “bad” things.

C.

Behavior-based systems pull from a previously stored database that distinguishes “bad”.

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Questions 6

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

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Questions 7

What is the ptrpose of automation in SOAR?

Options:

A.

To provide consistency in response to security issues

B.

To give only administrators the ability to view logs

C.

To allow easy manual entry of changes to security templates

D.

To complicate programming for system administration -

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Questions 8

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

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Questions 9

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

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Questions 10

What protocol requires all routers in the same domain to maintain a map of the network?

Options:

A.

EIGRP

B.

Static

C.

RIP

D.

OSPF

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Questions 11

Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organization's endpoint systems.

Options:

A.

It cannot identify command-and-control traffic

B.

It assumes that all internal devices are untrusted

C.

It assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted

D.

It cannot monitor all potential network ports

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Questions 12

What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?

Options:

A.

run a static analysis

B.

check its execution policy

C.

send the executable to WildFire

D.

run a dynamic analysis

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Questions 13

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

Options:

A.

They share the work of both clients and servers.

B.

They allow client computers to perform most of the work.

C.

They divide responsibilities among clients.

D.

They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.

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Questions 14

Which feature of cloud-native security platforms (CNSPs) focuses on protecting virtual machine (VM), container, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime?

Options:

A.

Workload security

B.

Data security

C.

Asset inventory

D.

Configuration assessment

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Questions 15

Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

Options:

A.

endpoint antivirus software

B.

strong endpoint passwords

C.

endpoint disk encryption

D.

endpoint NIC ACLs

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Questions 16

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

Options:

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

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Questions 17

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)

D.

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

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Questions 18

Which Palo Alto Networks solution has replaced legacy IPS solutions?

Options:

A.

Advanced DNS Security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

Advanced Threat Prevention

D.

Advanced URL Filtering

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Questions 19

A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

Options:

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

CaaS

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Questions 20

Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

Options:

A.

cybercriminals

B.

state-affiliated groups

C.

hacktivists

D.

cyberterrorists

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Questions 21

Which two statements describe the Jasager attack? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

□ The victim must manually choose the attacker s access point

B.

□ It actively responds to beacon reguests.

C.

□ It tries to get victims to conned at random.

D.

□ The attacker needs to be wilhin close proximity of the victim.

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Questions 22

Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

how the data is backed up in one or more locations

B.

how the application can be used

C.

how the application processes the data

D.

how the application can transit the Internet

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Questions 23

What is an operation of an Attack Surface Management (ASM) platform?

Options:

A.

It scans assets in the cloud space for remediation of compromised sanctioned SaaS applications.

B.

It continuously identifies all internal and external internet-connected assets for potential attack vectors and exposures.

C.

It identifies and monitors the movement of data within, into, and out of an organization's network.

D.

It detects and remediates misconfigured security settings in sanctioned SaaS applications through monitoring.

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Questions 24

Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?

Options:

A.

Types of physical storage media used

B.

Data-at-rest encryption standards

C.

Acceptable use of the SaaS application

D.

Vulnerability scanning and management

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Questions 25

How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to analysts?

Options:

A.

It creates an encrypted connection to the company's data center.

B.

It performs SSL decryption to give visibility into user traffic.

C.

II prevents sensitive data from leaving the network.

D.

II automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators.

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Questions 26

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Options:

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

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Questions 27

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

Options:

A.

ransomware

B.

Trojan horse

C.

virus

D.

worm

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Questions 28

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.

B.

Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.

C.

Perform an attack on local systems.

D.

Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.

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Questions 29

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

Options:

A.

192.168.6.168/30

B.

192.168.6.0/25

C.

192.168.6.160/29

D.

192.168.6.128/27

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Questions 30

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

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Questions 31

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

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Questions 32

What is a function of SSL/TLS decryption?

Options:

A.

It applies to unknown threat detection only.

B.

It reveals malware within web-based traffic.

C.

It protects users from social engineering.

D.

It identifies loT devices on the internet.

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Questions 33

Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

Options:

A.

Behavior analysis

B.

Comparison of alerts to signatures

C.

Manual inspection of user activities

D.

Rule-based activity prioritization

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Questions 34

What is a key method used to secure sensitive data in Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) applications?

Options:

A.

Allow downloads to managed devices but block them from unmanaged devices.

B.

Allow downloads to both managed and unmanaged devices.

C.

Leave data security in the hands of the cloud service provider.

D.

Allow users to choose their own applications to access data.

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Questions 35

What are two functions of an active monitoring system? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Preventing specific changes from being affected in the system

B.

Determining system health using unaltered system data

C.

Detecting micro-services in a default configuration

D.

Using probes to establish potential load issues

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Questions 36

In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?

Options:

A.

Computer

B.

Switch

C.

Infrastructure

D.

Cloud

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Questions 37

SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

People

B.

Accessibility

C.

Processes

D.

Understanding

E.

Business

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Questions 38

Which action must Secunty Operations take when dealing with a known attack?

Options:

A.

Document, monitor, and track the incident.

B.

Limit the scope of who knows about the incident.

C.

Increase the granularity of the application firewall.

D.

Disclose details of lhe attack in accordance with regulatory standards.

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Questions 39

Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

Options:

A.

DNS security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

loT security

D.

Advanced Threat Prevention

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Questions 40

You received an email, allegedly from a bank, that asks you to click a malicious link to take action on your account.

Which type of attack is this?

Options:

A.

Whaling

B.

Spamming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Phishing

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Questions 41

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Initial Research

B.

Change Control

C.

Content Engineering

D.

Breach Response

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Questions 42

What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Assessing severity levels

B.

Identifying misconfigurations

C.

Unifying cloud provider services

D.

Detecting and correlating anomalies

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Questions 43

Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?

Options:

A.

cybercriminal

B.

cyberterrorist

C.

state-affiliated group

D.

hacktivist

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Questions 44

Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?

Options:

A.

O Multicloud

B.

O 5G -

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

DevOps

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Questions 45

Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?

Options:

A.

192.168.19.0

B.

192.168.19.16

C.

192.168.19.64

D.

192.168.19.32

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Questions 46

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Options:

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

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Questions 47

In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

On-premises

D.

IaaS

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Questions 48

Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?

Options:

A.

Setting up a web page for harvesting user credentials

B.

Laterally transferring the file through a network after being granted access

C.

Embedding the file inside a pdf to be downloaded and installed

D.

Corruption of security device memory spaces while file is in transit

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Questions 49

Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

Options:

A.

interfaces

B.

business

C.

technology

D.

people

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Questions 50

The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

physical

B.

platform

C.

data

D.

infrastructure

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Questions 51

What is a dependency for the functionality of signature-based malware detection?

Options:

A.

Frequent database updates

B.

Support of a DLP device

C.

API integration with a sandbox

D.

Enabling quality of service

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Questions 52

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

Options:

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

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Questions 53

Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Improved application development

B.

Incident impact analysis

C.

Periodic firewall updates

D.

Proactive threat hunting

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Questions 54

How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

Options:

A.

Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility

B.

Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure

C.

Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility

D.

Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility

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Questions 55

Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?

Options:

A.

Evil twin

B.

Jasager

C.

Parager

D.

Mirai

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Questions 56

TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

Transport

B.

Session

C.

Data Link

D.

Application

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Questions 57

Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast to deploy, requires minimal cost and is infinitely scalable?

Options:

A.

Benign

B.

Tolerated

C.

Sanctioned

D.

Secure

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Questions 58

Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?

Options:

A.

IIDP

B.

IAM

C.

SIM

D.

Xpanse

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Questions 59

Which statement describes the process of application allow listing?

Options:

A.

It allows only trusted files, applications, and processes to run.

B.

It creates a set of specific applications that do not run on the system.

C.

It encrypts application data to protect the system from external threats.

D.

It allows safe use of applications by scanning files for malware.

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Questions 60

Which native Windows application can be used to inspect actions taken at a specific time?

Options:

A.

Event Viewer

B.

Timeline inspector

C.

Task Manager

D.

Task Scheduler

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Questions 61

On an endpoint, which method should you use to secure applications against exploits?

Options:

A.

endpoint-based firewall

B.

strong user passwords

C.

full-disk encryption

D.

software patches

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Questions 62

Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?

Options:

A.

between PaaS and FaaS

B.

between IaaS and PaaS

C.

between On-Prem and IaaS

D.

between FaaS and Serverless

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Questions 63

At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Physical

C.

Transport

D.

Data Link

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Questions 64

Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?

Options:

A.

Allowance

B.

Authorization

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

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Questions 65

If an endpoint does not know how to reach its destination, what path will it take to get there?

Options:

A.

The endpoint will broadcast to all connected network devices.

B.

The endpoint will not send the traffic until a path is clarified.

C.

The endpoint will send data to the specified default gateway.

D.

The endpoint will forward data to another endpoint to send instead.

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Questions 66

Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Practitioner Question 66

Options:

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Questions 67

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

Options:

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

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Questions 68

Which type of IDS/IPS uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt?

Options:

A.

Knowledge-based

B.

Signature-based

C.

Behavior-based

D.

Database-based

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Exam Code: Practitioner
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP)
Last Update: Jan 30, 2026
Questions: 227

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