Which statement appropriately describes performance tuning Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) functions on a Palo Alto Networks NGFW running Advanced Threat Prevention?
Leave all signatures turned on because they do not impact performance.
Create a new threat profile to use only signatures needed for the environment.
Work with TAC to run a debug and receive exact measurements of performance utilization for the IPS.
To increase performance, disable any threat signatures that do not apply to the environment.
Create a New Threat Profile (Answer B):
Performance tuning in Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) involves ensuring that only the most relevant and necessary signatures are enabled for the specific environment.
Palo Alto Networks allows you to create custom threat profiles to selectively enable signatures that match the threats most likely to affect the environment. This reduces unnecessary resource usage and ensures optimal performance.
By tailoring the signature set, organizations can focus on real threats without impacting overall throughput and latency.
Why Not A:
Leaving all signatures turned on is not a best practice because it may consume excessive resources, increasing processing time and degrading firewall performance, especially in high-throughput environments.
Why Not C:
While working with TAC for debugging may help identify specific performance bottlenecks, it is not a recommended approach for routine performance tuning. Instead, proactive configuration changes, such as creating tailored threat profiles, should be made.
Why Not D:
Disabling irrelevant threat signatures can improve performance, but this task is effectively accomplished by creating a new threat profile. Manually disabling signatures one by one is not scalable or efficient.
References from Palo Alto Networks Documentation:
Threat Prevention Best Practices
Custom Threat Profile Configuration
Regarding APIs, a customer RFP states: "The vendor’s firewall solution must provide an API with an enforcement mechanism to deactivate API keys after two hours." How should the response address this clause?
Yes - This is the default setting for API keys.
No - The PAN-OS XML API does not support keys.
No - The API keys can be made, but there is no method to deactivate them based on time.
Yes - The default setting must be changed from no limit to 120 minutes.
Palo Alto Networks' PAN-OS supports API keys for authentication when interacting with the firewall’s RESTful and XML-based APIs. By default, API keys do not have an expiration time set, but the expiration time for API keys can be configured by an administrator to meet specific requirements, such as a time-based deactivation after two hours. This is particularly useful for compliance and security purposes, where API keys should not remain active indefinitely.
Here’s an evaluation of the options:
Option A: This is incorrect because the default setting for API keys does not include an expiration time. By default, API keys are valid indefinitely unless explicitly configured otherwise.
Option B: This is incorrect because PAN-OS fully supports API keys. The API keys are integral to managing access to the firewall's APIs and provide a secure method for authentication.
Option C: This is incorrect because PAN-OS does support API key expiration when explicitly configured. While the default is "no expiration," the feature to configure an expiration time (e.g., 2 hours) is available.
Option D (Correct): The correct response to the RFP clause is that the default API key settings need to be modified to set the expiration time to 120 minutes (2 hours). This aligns with the customer requirement to enforce API key deactivation based on time. Administrators can configure this using the PAN-OS management interface or the CLI.
How to Configure API Key Expiration (Steps):
Access the Web Interface or CLI on the firewall.
Navigate to Device > Management > API Key Lifetime Settings (on the GUI).
Set the desired expiration time (e.g., 120 minutes).
Alternatively, use the CLI to configure the API key expiration:
set deviceconfig system api-key-expiry
commit
Verify the configuration using the show command or by testing API calls to ensure the key expires after the set duration.
Which two statements correctly describe best practices for sizing a firewall deployment with decryption enabled? (Choose two.)
SSL decryption traffic amounts vary from network to network.
Large average transaction sizes consume more processing power to decrypt.
Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) ephemeral key exchange algorithms such as Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (DHE) and Elliptic-Curve Diffie-Hellman Exchange (ECDHE) consume more processing resources than Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) algorithms.
Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) certificate authentication method (not the RSA key exchange algorithm) consumes more resources than Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA), but ECDSA is more secure.
When planning a firewall deployment with SSL/TLS decryption enabled, it is crucial to consider the additional processing overhead introduced by decrypting and inspecting encrypted traffic. Here are the details for each statement:
Why "SSL decryption traffic amounts vary from network to network" (Correct Answer A)?SSL decryption traffic varies depending on the organization’s specific network environment, user behavior, and applications. For example, networks with heavy web traffic, cloud applications, or encrypted VoIP traffic will have more SSL/TLS decryption processing requirements. This variability means each deployment must be properly assessed and sized accordingly.
Why "Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) ephemeral key exchange algorithms such as Diffie-Hellman Ephemeral (DHE) and Elliptic-Curve Diffie-Hellman Exchange (ECDHE) consume more processing resources than Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) algorithms" (Correct Answer C)?PFS algorithms like DHE and ECDHE generate unique session keys for each connection, ensuring better security but requiring significantly more processing power compared to RSA key exchange. When decryption is enabled, firewalls must handle these computationally expensive operations for every encrypted session, impacting performance and sizing requirements.
Why not "Large average transaction sizes consume more processing power to decrypt" (Option B)?While large transaction sizes can consume additional resources, SSL/TLS decryption is more dependent on the number of sessions and the complexity of the encryption algorithms used, rather than the size of the transactions. Hence, this is not a primary best practice consideration.
Why not "Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) certificate authentication method consumes more resources than Elliptic Curve Digital Signature Algorithm (ECDSA), but ECDSA is more secure" (Option D)?This statement discusses certificate authentication methods, not SSL/TLS decryption performance. While ECDSA is more efficient and secure than RSA, it is not directly relevant to sizing considerations for firewall deployments with decryption enabled.
A customer sees unusually high DNS traffic to an unfamiliar IP address. Which Palo Alto Networks Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) subscription should be enabled to further inspect this traffic?
Advanced Threat Prevention
Advanced WildFire
Advanced URL Filtering
Advanced DNS Security
The appropriate CDSS subscription to inspect and mitigate suspicious DNS traffic is Advanced DNS Security. Here’s why:
Advanced DNS Security protects against DNS-based threats, including domain generation algorithms (DGA), DNS tunneling (often used for data exfiltration), and malicious domains used in attacks. It leverages machine learning to detect and block DNS traffic associated with command-and-control servers or other malicious activities. In this case, unusually high DNS traffic to an unfamiliar IP address is likely indicative of a DNS-based attack or malware activity, making this the most suitable service.
Option A: Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP) focuses on identifying and blocking sophisticated threats in network traffic, such as exploits and evasive malware. While it complements DNS Security, it does not specialize in analyzing DNS-specific traffic patterns.
Option B: Advanced WildFire focuses on detecting and preventing file-based threats, such as malware delivered via email attachments or web downloads. It does not provide specific protection for DNS-related anomalies.
Option C: Advanced URL Filtering is designed to prevent access to malicious or inappropriate websites based on their URLs. While DNS may be indirectly involved in resolving malicious websites, this service does not directly inspect DNS traffic patterns for threats.
Option D (Correct): Advanced DNS Security specifically addresses DNS-based threats. By enabling this service, the customer can detect and block DNS queries to malicious domains and investigate anomalous DNS behavior like the high traffic observed in this scenario.
How to Enable Advanced DNS Security:
Ensure the firewall has a valid Advanced DNS Security license.
Navigate to Objects > Security Profiles > Anti-Spyware.
Enable DNS Security under the "DNS Signatures" section.
Apply the Anti-Spyware profile to the relevant Security Policy to enforce DNS Security.
While responding to a customer RFP, a systems engineer (SE) is presented the question, "How do PANW firewalls enable the mapping of transactions as part of Zero Trust principles?" Which two narratives can the SE use to respond to the question? (Choose two.)
Emphasize Zero Trust as an ideology, and that the customer decides how to align to Zero Trust principles.
Reinforce the importance of decryption and security protections to verify traffic that is not malicious.
Explain how the NGFW can be placed in the network so it has visibility into every traffic flow.
Describe how Palo Alto Networks NGFW Security policies are built by using users, applications, and data objects.
The question asks how Palo Alto Networks (PANW) Strata Hardware Firewalls enable the mapping of transactions as part of Zero Trust principles, requiring a systems engineer (SE) to provide two narratives for a customer RFP response. Zero Trust is a security model that assumes no trust by default, requiring continuous verification of all transactions, users, and devices—inside and outside the network. The Palo Alto Networks Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW), part of the Strata portfolio, supports this through its advanced visibility, decryption, and policy enforcement capabilities. Below is a detailed explanation of why options B and D are the correct narratives, verified against official Palo Alto Networks documentation.
Step 1: Understanding Zero Trust and Transaction Mapping in PAN-OS
Zero Trust principles, as defined by frameworks like NIST SP 800-207, emphasize identifying and verifying every transaction (e.g., network flows, application requests) based on context such as user identity, application, and data. For Palo Alto Networks NGFWs, "mapping of transactions" refers to the ability to identify, classify, and control network traffic with granular detail, enabling verification and enforcement aligned with Zero Trust.
The PAN-OS operating system achieves this through:
App-ID: Identifies applications regardless of port or protocol.
User-ID: Maps IP addresses to user identities.
Content-ID: Inspects and protects content, including decryption for visibility.
Security Policies: Enforces rules based on these mappings.
As a team plans for a meeting with a new customer in one week, the account manager prepares to pitch Zero Trust. The notes provided to the systems engineer (SE) in preparation for the meeting read: "Customer is struggling with security as they move to cloud apps and remote users." What should the SE recommend to the team in preparation for the meeting?
Lead with the account manager pitching Zero Trust with the aim of convincing the customer that the team's approach meets their needs.
Design discovery questions to validate customer challenges with identity, devices, data, and access for applications and remote users.
Lead with a product demonstration of GlobalProtect connecting to an NGFW and Prisma Access, and have SaaS security enabled.
Guide the account manager into recommending Prisma SASE at the customer meeting to solve the issues raised.
When preparing for a customer meeting, it’s important to understand their specific challenges and align solutions accordingly. The notes suggest that the customer is facing difficulties securing their cloud apps and remote users, which are core areas addressed by Palo Alto Networks’ Zero Trust and SASE solutions. However, jumping directly into a pitch or product demonstration without validating the customer's specific challenges may fail to build trust or fully address their needs.
Option A: Leading with a pre-structured pitch about Zero Trust principles may not resonate with the customer if their challenges are not fully understood first. The team needs to gather insights into the customer's security pain points before presenting a solution.
Option B (Correct): Discovery questions are a critical step in the sales process, especially when addressing complex topics like Zero Trust. By designing targeted questions about the customer’s challenges with identity, devices, data, and access, the SE can identify specific pain points. These insights can then be used to tailor a Zero Trust strategy that directly addresses the customer’s concerns. This approach ensures the meeting is customer-focused and demonstrates that the SE understands their unique needs.
Option C: While a product demonstration of GlobalProtect, Prisma Access, and SaaS security is valuable, it should come after discovery. Presenting products prematurely may seem like a generic sales pitch and could fail to address the customer’s actual challenges.
Option D: Prisma SASE is an excellent solution for addressing cloud security and remote user challenges, but recommending it without first understanding the customer’s specific needs may undermine trust. This step should follow after discovery and validation of the customer’s pain points.
Examples of Discovery Questions:
What are your primary security challenges with remote users and cloud applications?
Are you currently able to enforce consistent security policies across your hybrid environment?
How do you handle identity verification and access control for remote users?
What level of visibility do you have into traffic to and from your cloud applications?
A company with Palo Alto Networks NGFWs protecting its physical data center servers is experiencing a performance issue on its Active Directory (AD) servers due to high numbers of requests and updates the NGFWs are placing on the servers. How can the NGFWs be enabled to efficiently identify users without overloading the AD servers?
Configure Cloud Identity Engine to learn the users' IP address-user mappings from the AD authentication logs.
Configure an NGFW as a GlobalProtect gateway, then have all users run GlobalProtect Windows SSO to gather user information.
Configure data redistribution to redistribute IP address-user mappings from a hub NGFW to the other spoke NGFWs.
Configure an NGFW as a GlobalProtect gateway, then have all users run GlobalProtect agents to gather user information.
When high traffic from Palo Alto Networks NGFWs to Active Directory servers causes performance issues, optimizing the way NGFWs gather user-to-IP mappings is critical. Palo Alto Networks offers multiple ways to collect user identity information, and Cloud Identity Engine provides a solution that reduces the load on AD servers while still ensuring efficient and accurate mapping.
Option A (Correct): Cloud Identity Engine allows NGFWs to gather user-to-IP mappings directly from Active Directory authentication logs or other identity sources without placing heavy traffic on the AD servers. By leveraging this feature, the NGFW can offload authentication-related tasks and efficiently identify users without overloading AD servers. This solution is scalable and minimizes the overhead typically caused by frequent User-ID queries to AD servers.
Option B: Using GlobalProtect Windows SSO to gather user information can add complexity and is not the most efficient solution for this problem. It requires all users to install GlobalProtect agents, which may not be feasible in all environments and can introduce operational challenges.
Option C: Data redistribution involves redistributing user-to-IP mappings from one NGFW (hub) to other NGFWs (spokes). While this can reduce the number of queries sent to AD servers, it assumes the mappings are already being collected from AD servers by the hub, which means the performance issue on the AD servers would persist.
Option D: Using GlobalProtect agents to gather user information is a valid method for environments where GlobalProtect is already deployed, but it is not the most efficient or straightforward solution for the given problem. It also introduces dependencies on agent deployment, configuration, and management.
How to Implement Cloud Identity Engine for User-ID Mapping:
Enable Cloud Identity Engine from the Palo Alto Networks console.
Integrate the Cloud Identity Engine with the AD servers to allow it to retrieve authentication logs directly.
Configure the NGFWs to use the Cloud Identity Engine for User-ID mappings instead of querying the AD servers directly.
Monitor performance to ensure the AD servers are no longer overloaded, and mappings are being retrieved efficiently.
While a quote is being finalized for a customer that is purchasing multiple PA-5400 series firewalls, the customer specifies the need for protection against zero-day malware attacks.
Which Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) subscription add-on license should be included in the quote?
AI Access Security
Advanced Threat Prevention
Advanced WildFire
App-ID
Zero-day malware attacks are sophisticated threats that exploit previously unknown vulnerabilities or malware signatures. To provide protection against such attacks, the appropriate Cloud-Delivered Security Service subscription must be included.
Why "Advanced WildFire" (Correct Answer C)?Advanced WildFire is Palo Alto Networks’ sandboxing solution that identifies and prevents zero-day malware. It uses machine learning, dynamic analysis, and static analysis to detect unknown malware in real time.
Files and executables are analyzed in the cloud-based sandbox, and protections are shared globally within minutes.
Advanced WildFire specifically addresses zero-day threats by dynamically analyzing suspicious files and generating new signatures.
Why not "AI Access Security" (Option A)?AI Access Security is designed to secure SaaS applications by monitoring and enforcing data protection and compliance. While useful for SaaS security, it does not focus on detecting or preventing zero-day malware.
Why not "Advanced Threat Prevention" (Option B)?Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP) focuses on detecting zero-day exploits (e.g., SQL injection, buffer overflows) using inline deep learning but is not specifically designed to analyze and prevent zero-day malware. ATP complements Advanced WildFire, but WildFire is the primary solution for malware detection.
Why not "App-ID" (Option D)?App-ID identifies and controls applications on the network. While it improves visibility and security posture, it does not address zero-day malware detection or prevention.
The PAN-OS User-ID integrated agent is included with PAN-OS software and comes in which two forms? (Choose two.)
Integrated agent
GlobalProtect agent
Windows-based agent
Cloud Identity Engine (CIE)
User-ID is a feature in PAN-OS that maps IP addresses to usernames by integrating with various directory services (e.g., Active Directory). User-ID can be implemented through agents provided by Palo Alto Networks. Here’s how each option applies:
Option A: Integrated agent
The integrated User-ID agent is built into PAN-OS and does not require an external agent installation. It is configured directly on the firewall and integrates with directory services to retrieve user information.
This is correct.
Option B: GlobalProtect agent
GlobalProtect is Palo Alto Networks' VPN solution and does not function as a User-ID agent. While it can be used to authenticate users and provide visibility, it is not categorized as a User-ID agent.
This is incorrect.
Option C: Windows-based agent
The Windows-based User-ID agent is a standalone agent installed on a Windows server. It collects user mapping information from directory services and sends it to the firewall.
This is correct.
Option D: Cloud Identity Engine (CIE)
The Cloud Identity Engine provides identity services in a cloud-native manner but is not a User-ID agent. It synchronizes with identity providers like Azure AD and Okta.
This is incorrect.
Which two compliance frameworks are included with the Premium version of Strata Cloud Manager (SCM)? (Choose two)
Payment Card Industry (PCI)
National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
Center for Internet Security (CIS)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
Step 1: Understanding Strata Cloud Manager (SCM) Premium
Strata Cloud Manager is a unified management interface for Strata NGFWs, Prisma Access, and other Palo Alto Networks solutions. The Premium version (subscription-based) includes advanced features like:
AIOps Premium: Predictive analytics, capacity planning, and compliance reporting.
Compliance Posture Management: Pre-built dashboards and reports for specific regulatory frameworks.
Compliance frameworks in SCM Premium provide visibility into adherence to standards like PCI DSS and NIST, generating actionable insights and audit-ready reports based on firewall configurations, logs, and traffic data.
A systems engineer (SE) successfully demonstrates NGFW managed by Strata Cloud Manager (SCM) to a company. In the resulting planning phase of the proof of value (POV), the CISO requests a test that shows how the security policies are either meeting, or are progressing toward meeting, industry standards such as Critical Security Controls (CSC), and how the company can verify that it is effectively utilizing the functionality purchased.
During the POV testing timeline, how should the SE verify that the POV will meet the CISO's request?
Near the end, pull a Security Lifecycle Review (SLR) in the POV and create a report for the customer.
At the beginning, work with the customer to create custom dashboards and reports for any information required, so reports can be pulled as needed by the customer.
Near the end, the customer pulls information from these SCM dashboards: Best Practices, CDSS Adoption, and NGFW Feature Adoption.
At the beginning, use PANhandler golden images that are designed to align to compliance and to turning on the features for the CDSS subscription being tested.
The SE has demonstrated an NGFW managed by SCM, and the CISO now wants the POV to show progress toward industry standards (e.g., CSC) and verify effective use of purchased features (e.g., CDSS subscriptions like Advanced Threat Prevention). The SE must ensure the POV delivers measurable evidence during the testing timeline. Let’s evaluate the options.
Step 1: Understand the CISO’s Request
Industry Standards (e.g., CSC): The Center for Internet Security’s Critical Security Controls (e.g., CSC 1: Inventory of Devices, CSC 4: Secure Configuration) require visibility, threat prevention, and policy enforcement, which NGFW and SCM can address.
Feature Utilization: Confirm that licensed functionalities (e.g., App-ID, Threat Prevention, URL Filtering) are active and effective.
POV Goal: Provide verifiable progress and utilization metrics within the testing timeline.
What is the minimum configuration to stop a Cobalt Strike Malleable C2 attack inline and in real time?
Next-Generation CASB on PAN-OS 10.1
Advanced Threat Prevention and PAN-OS 10.2
Threat Prevention and Advanced WildFire with PAN-OS 10.0
DNS Security, Threat Prevention, and Advanced WildFire with PAN-OS 9.x
Cobalt Strike is a popular post-exploitation framework often used by attackers for Command and Control (C2) operations. Malleable C2 profiles allow attackers to modify the behavior of their C2 communication, making detection more difficult. Stopping these attacks in real time requires deep inline inspection and the ability to block zero-day and evasive threats.
Why "Advanced Threat Prevention and PAN-OS 10.2" (Correct Answer B)?Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP) on PAN-OS 10.2 uses inline deep learning models to detect and block Cobalt Strike Malleable C2 attacks in real time. ATP is designed to prevent evasive techniques and zero-day threats, which is essential for blocking Malleable C2. PAN-OS 10.2 introduces enhanced capabilities for detecting malicious traffic patterns and inline analysis of encrypted traffic.
ATP examines traffic behavior and signature-less threats, effectively stopping evasive C2 profiles.
PAN-OS 10.2 includes real-time protections specifically for Malleable C2.
Why not "Next-Generation CASB on PAN-OS 10.1" (Option A)?Next-Generation CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) is designed to secure SaaS applications and does not provide the inline C2 protection required to stop Malleable C2 attacks. CASB is not related to Command and Control detection.
Why not "Threat Prevention and Advanced WildFire with PAN-OS 10.0" (Option C)?Threat Prevention and Advanced WildFire are effective for detecting and preventing malware and known threats. However, they rely heavily on signatures and sandboxing for analysis, which is not sufficient for stopping real-time evasive C2 traffic. PAN-OS 10.0 lacks the advanced inline capabilities provided by ATP in PAN-OS 10.2.
Why not "DNS Security, Threat Prevention, and Advanced WildFire with PAN-OS 9.x" (Option D)?While DNS Security and Threat Prevention are valuable for blocking malicious domains and known threats, PAN-OS 9.x does not provide the inline deep learning capabilities needed for real-time detection and prevention of Malleable C2 attacks. The absence of advanced behavioral analysis in PAN-OS 9.x makes this combination ineffective against advanced C2 attacks.
Which two products can be integrated and managed by Strata Cloud Manager (SCM)? (Choose two)
Prisma SD-WAN
Prisma Cloud
Cortex XDR
VM-Series NGFW
Strata Cloud Manager (SCM) is Palo Alto Networks’ centralized cloud-based management platform for managing network security solutions, including Prisma Access and Prisma SD-WAN. SCM can also integrate with VM-Series firewalls for managing virtualized NGFW deployments.
Why A (Prisma SD-WAN) Is Correct
SCM is the management interface for Prisma SD-WAN, enabling centralized orchestration, monitoring, and configuration of SD-WAN deployments.
Why D (VM-Series NGFW) Is Correct
SCM supports managing VM-Series NGFWs, providing centralized visibility and control for virtualized firewall deployments in cloud or on-premises environments.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect
B (Prisma Cloud): Prisma Cloud is a separate product for securing workloads in public cloud environments. It is not managed via SCM.
C (Cortex XDR): Cortex XDR is a platform for endpoint detection and response (EDR). It is managed through its own console, not SCM.
Which two actions should a systems engineer take when a customer is concerned about how to remain aligned to Zero Trust principles as they adopt additional security features over time? (Choose two)
Turn on all licensed Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) subscriptions in blocking mode for all policies.
Apply decryption where possible to inspect and log all new and existing traffic flows.
Use the Best Practice Assessment (BPA) tool to measure progress toward Zero Trust principles.
Use the Policy Optimizer tool to understand security rules allowing users to bypass decryption.
When adopting additional security features over time, remaining aligned with Zero Trust principles requires a focus on constant visibility, control, and adherence to best practices. The following actions are the most relevant:
Why "Apply decryption where possible to inspect and log all new and existing traffic flows" (Correct Answer B)?Zero Trust principles emphasize visibility into all traffic, whether encrypted or unencrypted. Without decryption, encrypted traffic becomes a blind spot, which attackers can exploit. By applying decryption wherever feasible, organizations ensure they can inspect, log, and enforce policies on encrypted traffic, thus adhering to Zero Trust principles.
Why "Use the Best Practice Assessment (BPA) tool to measure progress toward Zero Trust principles" (Correct Answer C)?The BPA tool provides detailed insights into the customer’s security configuration, helping measure alignment with Palo Alto Networks’ Zero Trust best practices. It identifies gaps in security posture and recommends actionable steps to strengthen adherence to Zero Trust principles over time.
Why not "Turn on all licensed Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) subscriptions in blocking mode for all policies" (Option A)?While enabling CDSS subscriptions (like Threat Prevention, URL Filtering, Advanced Threat Prevention) in blocking mode can enhance security, it is not an action specifically tied to maintaining alignment with Zero Trust principles. A more holistic approach, such as decryption and BPA analysis, is critical to achieving Zero Trust.
Why not "Use the Policy Optimizer tool to understand security rules allowing users to bypass decryption" (Option D)?Policy Optimizer is used to optimize existing security rules by identifying unused or overly permissive policies. While useful, it does not directly address alignment with Zero Trust principles or help enforce decryption.
Which initial action can a network security engineer take to prevent a malicious actor from using a file-sharing application for data exfiltration without impacting users who still need to use file-sharing applications?
Use DNS Security to limit access to file-sharing applications based on job functions.
Use App-ID to limit access to file-sharing applications based on job functions.
Use DNS Security to block all file-sharing applications and uploading abilities.
Use App-ID to block all file-sharing applications and uploading abilities.
To prevent malicious actors from abusing file-sharing applications for data exfiltration, App-ID provides a granular approach to managing application traffic. Palo Alto Networks' App-ID is a technology that identifies applications traversing the network, regardless of port, protocol, encryption (SSL), or evasive tactics. By leveraging App-ID, security engineers can implement policies that restrict the use of specific applications or functionalities based on job functions, ensuring that only authorized users or groups can use file-sharing applications while blocking unauthorized or malicious usage.
Here’s why the options are evaluated this way:
Option A: DNS Security focuses on identifying and blocking malicious domains. While it plays a critical role in preventing certain attacks (like command-and-control traffic), it is not effective for managing application usage. Hence, this is not the best approach.
Option B (Correct): App-ID provides the ability to identify file-sharing applications (such as Dropbox, Google Drive, or OneDrive) and enforce policies to restrict their use. For example, you can create a security rule allowing file-sharing apps only for specific job functions, such as HR or marketing, while denying them for other users. This targeted approach ensures legitimate business needs are not disrupted, which aligns with the requirement of not impacting valid users.
Option C: Blocking all file-sharing applications outright using DNS Security is a broad measure that will indiscriminately impact legitimate users. This does not meet the requirement of allowing specific users to continue using file-sharing applications.
Option D: While App-ID can block file-sharing applications outright, doing so will prevent legitimate usage and is not aligned with the requirement to allow usage based on job functions.
How to Implement the Solution (Using App-ID):
Identify the relevant file-sharing applications using App-ID in Palo Alto Networks’ predefined application database.
Create security policies that allow these applications only for users or groups defined in your directory (e.g., Active Directory).
Use custom App-ID filters or explicit rules to control specific functionalities of file-sharing applications, such as uploads or downloads.
Monitor traffic to ensure that only authorized users are accessing the applications and that no malicious activity is occurring.
TESTED 16 Aug 2025